Question 1
Which of the following are characteristic features of "Retail Banking"? I. Multiple products (deposits, credit cards, insurance). II. Multiple channels of distribution (Call center, Branch, Internet). III. High ticket size per transaction. IV. Small customer base.
View Explanation
Retail Banking is characterized by multiple products (liabilities, assets, services) catering to a large customer base (mass market) through multiple channels. The ticket size (loan/deposit amount) is typically low compared to corporate banking, making statement III incorrect. The customer base is huge, making statement IV incorrect.
Question 2
In the context of risk, how does Retail Banking differ from Corporate/Wholesale Banking?
View Explanation
Retail banking involves lending small amounts to a huge number of customers. Thus, the risk is spread out (diversified); the default of a few customers doesn't impact the bank significantly. Corporate banking involves huge loans to few entities, leading to high concentration risk.
Question 3
Which of the following is considered a major "Constraint" or disadvantage of Retail Banking?
View Explanation
Servicing millions of small customers requires extensive infrastructure (branches, ATMs, technology) and manpower. This results in high operational/monitoring costs per unit of money handled compared to wholesale banking.
Question 4
In the "Strategic Business Unit" (SBU) approach to Retail Banking, the retail business is treated as:
View Explanation
The SBU model treats Retail Banking as a semi-autonomous unit (Profit Center). It has defined targets, dedicated resources, and separate P&L accountability, allowing for focused growth strategies independent of other bank divisions.
Question 5
According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, a customer looking for "Self-Actualization" products would be interested in:
View Explanation
At the Self-Actualization stage (the highest level), basic financial needs are met. The customer seeks products that define their legacy, personal growth, or contribution to society (e.g., specialized wealth management, art investing).
Question 6
The "Transfer Price Mechanism" (TPM) is used in banks to:
View Explanation
TPM ensures fair assessment. A branch collecting deposits "lends" them to the HO and gets paid interest (Transfer Price). A branch giving loans "borrows" from HO and pays interest. The net margin determines branch profit.
Question 7
In Retail Banking segmentation, the "Mass Affluent" segment typically represents:
View Explanation
Mass Affluent customers sit between the Mass Market and HNIs. They have higher income than average and demand value-added services, premium cards, and investment products but don't require bespoke private banking.
Question 8
A "Horizontally Organized" model in Retail Banking implies:
View Explanation
Horizontal organization breaks product silos. Instead of separate departments for Loans, Cards, and Deposits acting blindly, customer data is shared horizontally to enable cross-selling and better relationship management.
Question 9
The primary objective of "CRM" in Retail Banking is to:
View Explanation
CRM uses data to segment customers, predict their needs, and offer relevant products. It shifts focus from "Product-Centric" to "Customer-Centric" banking.
Question 10
Which of the following strategies is most effective for improving Branch Profitability?
View Explanation
CASA (Current and Savings Account) deposits have the lowest cost of funds. Increasing CASA reduces interest expense. Fee-based income (Cross-selling insurance, MF) adds revenue without using capital. This combination maximizes profit.
Question 11
The evolution of Retail Banking in India has moved from "Class Banking" to:
View Explanation
Historically, banks served only the wealthy or corporates (Class Banking). Post-nationalization and especially post-1991 reforms with technology, banks now target the general population (Mass Banking) with standardized products.
Question 12
The "Vertically Organized" model in Retail Banking typically suffers from:
View Explanation
In a vertical model, each product line operates independently with its own P&L. While this allows specialization, it often creates silos where one department doesn't know the customer's relationship with another department, hindering a unified customer experience.
Question 13
Which of the following is an "Asset Product" in Retail Banking?
View Explanation
In banking terms, Loans are Assets (they earn interest) and Deposits are Liabilities (interest is paid). Personal Loan is an asset product for the bank.
Question 14
In the "Product Life Cycle" (PLC) of a retail banking product, the "Growth" stage is characterized by:
View Explanation
During the Growth stage, the product gains market acceptance. Sales volume rises sharply, per-unit cost falls, and profits peak. However, competitors also enter the market during this phase.
Question 15
Branch Operating Profit is calculated as:
View Explanation
Operating Profit reflects the core earnings from business operations. It deducts all expenses (cost of funds, salaries, rent, etc.) from all income sources, but BEFORE deducting provisions for bad debts or taxes.
Question 16
Which of the following is a "Remote" delivery channel in Retail Banking?
View Explanation
Remote channels allow customers to transact without physical interaction or visiting a location. Branch, Extension Counter, and RM visits involve physical presence/interaction.
Question 17
In terms of Retail Banking strategy, New Generation Private Sector Banks typically focus on:
View Explanation
Private banks leveraged technology (ATMs, Internet) early to offer superior service and convenience, targeting the profitable urban salaried class, unlike PSBs which had a broader social mandate.
Question 18
The "Physiological Needs" in Maslow's theory correspond to which banking products?
View Explanation
Physiological needs are basic survival needs (food, shelter). In banking, this translates to basic products needed for day-to-day living, like a savings account for liquidity and consumer loans for household items.
Question 19
A branch with a high CASA ratio is likely to have:
View Explanation
CASA (Current Account Savings Account) deposits pay very low or no interest. A high proportion of CASA means the bank pays less interest overall, reducing its Cost of Funds.
Question 20
In the "Departmental Approach" to Retail Banking:
View Explanation
This is a traditional model where retail is just another department alongside others. It typically lacks the focus and agility of the SBU model and is often used by smaller or older public sector banks.
Question 21
Which of the following falls under the scope of Retail Banking Assets?
View Explanation
Assets refer to loans given by the bank. Auto Loan is a classic retail asset product. Current, Term, and Salary accounts are liabilities (deposits).
Question 22
Dividing customers into groups based on Age, Gender, Income, and Occupation is called:
View Explanation
Demographic segmentation uses quantifiable population statistics. Age, income, and gender are the most common parameters used by banks to target retail products (e.g., Senior Citizen FD, Student Loan).
Question 23
To arrive at "Net Profit" of a branch, what must be deducted from the Operating Profit?
View Explanation
Operating Profit is profit before provisions and taxes. To calculate the final Net Profit, the branch must account for credit costs (provisions for bad loans) and taxation.
Question 24
Why is the integration of Retail Banking with other banking services (like SME or Corporate) important?
View Explanation
Synergy between Corporate and Retail banking is a major growth driver. A bank holding a corporate account can easily tap into the retail business of that corporate's thousands of employees (B2B2C model).
Question 25
Behavioral Segmentation classifies customers based on:
View Explanation
Behavioral segmentation looks at *how* the customer interacts with the bank—are they heavy users (transactors), do they prefer digital channels, are they price-sensitive? This helps in targeted marketing.
Question 26
Which of the following is a "Retail Liability Product"?
View Explanation
Liability products are those where the bank owes money to the customer (Deposits). Savings Account is the most fundamental retail liability product. Loans are assets.
Question 27
If a branch is "Deposit Heavy" (High Deposits, Low Advances), under the Transfer Price Mechanism, it will primarily earn income from:
View Explanation
A deposit-heavy branch collects more funds than it lends locally. It transfers the surplus to the Head Office and earns interest (Transfer Price) on it, which becomes its major income source.
Question 28
From a bank's perspective, what is the main advantage of the retail banking portfolio regarding risk?
View Explanation
This diversification is the biggest strength. Unlike a corporate loan where one default can wipe out profits, retail defaults are usually small and statistically predictable.
Question 29
Which process model relies heavily on centralized processing units (CPUs) for back-office tasks?
View Explanation
In this model, branches focus only on sales and customer service. All operational tasks (account opening, loan sanctioning, clearing) are moved to a Centralized Processing Unit to improve efficiency and standardize risk.
Question 30
Retail Banking typically deals with:
View Explanation
Retail involves millions of transactions (High Volume) but the value of each transaction (e.g., ATM withdrawal, Personal Loan) is relatively small (Low Ticket Size).
Question 31
Which of the following statements about "Credit Cards" is FALSE?
View Explanation
This statement is false. Cash withdrawals on credit cards usually attract interest from day one. There is NO interest-free period for cash advances.
Question 32
A "White Label ATM" (WLA) is set up, owned, and operated by:
View Explanation
WLAs are ATMs set up, owned, and operated by non-banks. They are authorized by the RBI under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Examples include Tata Communications Payment Solutions (Indicash).
Question 33
In the context of the 7 Ps of Service Marketing, "Process" refers to:
View Explanation
Process involves the procedures, mechanisms, and flow of activities. In banking, efficient processes (like quick loan approval or fast account opening) are a key differentiator.
Question 34
High Net Worth Individuals (HNIs) are primarily targeted for which type of banking service?
View Explanation
HNIs require personalized investment advice, tax planning, and estate planning. Private Banking is the specialized division that caters to these complex needs.
Question 35
The "Pareto Principle" (80/20 Rule) in Retail Banking implies that:
View Explanation
This principle suggests that a small portion of high-value customers contributes the majority of the bank's profitability. CRM strategies focus on retaining this top 20%.
Question 36
Which of the following products has the lowest cost of funds for a bank?
View Explanation
Current Accounts typically carry 0% interest. Therefore, they are the cheapest source of funds for a bank. Savings accounts carry low interest (2.7%-3%), while Term Deposits carry high interest.
Question 37
In the "Decline" stage of the Product Life Cycle, what is the recommended strategy for a bank product?
View Explanation
When a product is declining (obsolete or unpopular), banks try to revive it by bundling it with other products, reducing costs to maintain margin, or simply withdrawing it from the market.
Question 38
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is increasingly used in Retail Banking for "Credit Scoring". This helps in:
View Explanation
AI/ML models can process unstructured data to predict repayment behavior, enabling banks to lend to "New to Credit" customers whom traditional models might reject.
Question 39
Why is Retail Banking considered less volatile than Corporate Banking?
View Explanation
Risk diversification is a key advantage. In corporate banking, a single default (e.g., Kingfisher) can create a massive NPA. In retail, the impact of individual defaults is negligible on the overall portfolio.
Question 40
Which channel is considered the most cost-effective for the bank?
View Explanation
Digital channels have almost zero marginal cost per transaction compared to the high infrastructure and staff costs of branches and ATMs.
Question 41
Why is the "People" element of the marketing mix crucial in Retail Banking?
View Explanation
In services, the provider is inseparable from the service. A rude or incompetent staff member equals bad service in the customer's mind, regardless of the product's quality.
Question 42
A "Horizontal" organizational structure in a bank facilitates:
View Explanation
Horizontal structures break down silos, allowing data and processes to flow across product lines. This enables the bank to see the "whole customer" and offer relevant products (e.g., offering a home loan to a savings account customer).
Question 43
In Retail Banking, "Auto Loans" are typically secured by:
View Explanation
Hypothecation is the charge created on movable assets (like cars) where the possession remains with the borrower, but the bank has the right to seize it in case of default.
Question 44
Which of the following factors has contributed most to the growth of Retail Banking in India?
View Explanation
India's demographic dividend (young population) and the rise of a consuming middle class with higher disposable income have fueled the demand for housing, vehicles, and personal loans.
Question 45
Treating branches as "Profit Centers" means:
View Explanation
This approach holds branch managers accountable for the bottom line. They must generate enough income (interest + fee) to cover their operating costs (staff, rent, etc.) and generate a surplus.
Question 46
Which product is typically suitable for a customer in the "Empty Nester" stage (children left home, nearing retirement)?
View Explanation
At this stage, the priority shifts from asset accumulation to income generation and security. Reverse Mortgage provides income from property, and savings schemes offer safe returns.
Question 47
A "Point of Sale" (POS) terminal allows customers to:
View Explanation
POS terminals are electronic devices used at retail locations to process card payments.
Question 48
Which of the following is an electronic remittance product available 24x7?
View Explanation
RBI has made NEFT and RTGS available 24x7x365. IMPS was always 24x7.
Question 49
Business Process Reengineering (BPR) in Retail Banking aims to:
View Explanation
BPR involves rethinking workflows from scratch (e.g., implementing Centralized Processing Units for loans) to eliminate redundancies and improve customer turnaround time (TAT).
Question 50
In the context of Digital Banking, the "Place" in the Marketing Mix refers to:
View Explanation
Place refers to distribution channels. In digital banking, the "place" of service delivery has shifted from physical branches to the customer's smartphone or computer.
Question 51
A major challenge in Retail Banking related to "KYC/AML" is:
View Explanation
Given the volume of retail accounts, ensuring compliance with Know Your Customer (KYC) and Anti-Money Laundering (AML) norms requires robust technology and constant vigilance, which is resource-intensive.
Question 52
The "Mass Market" segment is characterized by:
View Explanation
This segment focuses on the general population. Profitability comes from economies of scale and cross-selling basic products like savings accounts and debit cards.
Question 53
Income from selling Third Party Products (Insurance/Mutual Funds) is classified as:
View Explanation
Since the bank does not use its own funds to create an asset but acts as an agent earning commission, this is Non-Interest Income. It is crucial for boosting Return on Assets (RoA).
Question 54
Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in India generally adopt which business model for Retail Banking?
View Explanation
Most PSBs still follow the departmental approach where retail is one division within the general banking framework, though many are slowly moving towards the SBU model for better focus.
Question 55
A "Clean Personal Loan" refers to:
View Explanation
Personal loans are typically unsecured (Clean). The bank relies on the borrower's income and credit score (CIBIL) rather than physical security.
Question 56
Which technology enables customers to bank via mobile phones without an internet connection?
View Explanation
*99# service uses USSD technology to allow basic banking on feature phones (non-smartphones) without internet data.
Question 57
"Cross-Selling" in retail banking means:
View Explanation
Cross-selling increases the "Wallet Share" of the customer and deepens the relationship, making it harder for the customer to switch banks.
Question 58
Which component of the Marketing Mix involves "Advertising, Sales Promotion, and Public Relations"?
View Explanation
Promotion includes all communication strategies used to inform, persuade, and remind customers about the bank's products.
Question 59
The point at which a branch's Total Revenue equals its Total Cost (No Profit, No Loss) is called:
View Explanation
Branch managers monitor the Break-even point to know the minimum business volume required to cover fixed and variable costs.
Question 60
Which of the following is an advantage of Retail Banking for the economy?
View Explanation
Retail loans (Housing, Auto) create demand for goods and services (cement, steel, cars), driving industrial growth and economic development.
Question 61
In the context of Credit Information Companies (CICs) in India, what does a "DPD" of "000" in a credit report indicate?
View Explanation
DPD stands for "Days Past Due". A value of "000" means the borrower has met their payment obligation on or before the due date for that month, indicating good credit behavior.
Question 62
Which of the following is a key opportunity for Retail Banking in India?
View Explanation
The breakdown of joint families into nuclear families creates new demand for housing, household goods, and vehicles, driving the need for retail loans. Coupled with rising income, this presents a massive growth opportunity.
Question 63
During an economic "Recession", the demand for which retail banking product typically increases due to risk aversion?
View Explanation
In uncertain economic times (recession), customers prioritize safety of capital over high returns. Thus, the demand for safe liability products like Fixed Deposits tends to rise as people save more.
Question 64
In the SERVQUAL model of service quality, "Empathy" refers to:
View Explanation
Empathy involves understanding the customer’s specific needs and providing personalized service. Physical appearance is "Tangibles," dependability is "Reliability," and willingness to help is "Responsiveness."
Question 65
Which security protocol is essential for ensuring that data transmitted between a customer's browser and the bank's server is encrypted?
View Explanation
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or Transport Layer Security (TLS) encrypts the communication channel, indicated by "https://" and a padlock icon, protecting passwords and financial data from eavesdropping.
Question 66
What is the moratorium period (repayment holiday) typically applicable for Education Loans under the IBA scheme?
View Explanation
Repayment generally commences one year after the completion of the course or 6 months after getting a job, whichever is earlier. The standard moratorium is Course Period + 1 year.
Question 67
"Wealth Management" services differ from simple "Investment Advisory" because:
View Explanation
Wealth Management is an integrated process. While investment advisory focuses on asset allocation, Wealth Management looks at the entire financial life of a High Net Worth Individual (HNI), including succession and tax optimization.
Question 68
Banks often outsource "Non-Core" retail activities. Which of the following is typically considered a Core activity that CANNOT be outsourced?
View Explanation
While banks can outsource support functions like marketing, recovery, or IT maintenance, the core decision-making function of Sanctioning Loans (taking credit risk) must remain with the bank's own officers.
Question 69
The "Cost-to-Income Ratio" is a key metric for efficiency. A lower ratio indicates:
View Explanation
Cost-to-Income ratio measures operating expenses as a percentage of operating income. A lower ratio means the bank is spending less to generate each rupee of income, indicating high operational efficiency.
Question 70
A critical pre-requisite for the success of Retail Banking is:
View Explanation
Since retail banking depends on volume, the ability to serve millions of customers quickly, cheaply, and accurately through robust IT systems and channels (ATMs, Mobile) is the most critical success factor.
Question 71
In a "Reverse Mortgage Loan", who is the borrower?
View Explanation
Reverse Mortgage allows senior citizens to pledge their self-owned property to a bank in exchange for a regular income stream (annuity), without selling the house during their lifetime.
Question 72
What is the "Omni-channel" approach in Retail Banking?
View Explanation
Omni-channel means the customer can start a transaction on one channel (e.g., Mobile) and finish it on another (e.g., Branch) without loss of context. It ensures data synchronization across channels.
Question 73
Sending personalized loan offers via SMS or Email to a specific customer segment is an example of:
View Explanation
Direct Marketing involves communicating directly with targeted individual consumers to obtain an immediate response, using mail, telephone, email, or SMS.
Question 74
Psychographic Segmentation groups customers based on:
View Explanation
Psychographics delves into the "Why" of buying behavior—focusing on inner traits like lifestyle choices (e.g., adventurous vs safe) and values, rather than just external stats like age.
Question 75
Retail deposits (like Savings and Term Deposits) are considered "Core Deposits" because:
View Explanation
Retail customers tend to be loyal and don't move money frequently based on small rate changes. This provides a stable and cheap source of funds for the bank (Stable Funding Base).
Question 76
"Activity Based Management" (ABM) in branch profitability aims to:
View Explanation
ABM analyzes the costs of specific activities (e.g., processing a cheque) to see if they add value. If not, processes are re-engineered or automated to save costs.
Question 77
The term "Minimum Amount Due" (MAD) on a credit card statement typically refers to:
View Explanation
Paying the MAD ensures no late payment fee is charged and the card remains active. However, interest is still charged on the remaining unpaid balance.
Question 78
In the SBU model, the Head of Retail Banking reports directly to:
View Explanation
Since the SBU is an independent profit center, its head has autonomy and direct accountability to the top leadership for the unit's performance.
Question 79
Biometric ATMs are primarily aimed at improving financial inclusion for:
View Explanation
Biometric ATMs use fingerprints or iris scans for authentication instead of PINs, making them accessible to rural/illiterate populations who might struggle with numbers or passwords.
Question 80
As a customer moves up Maslow's hierarchy from "Safety Needs" to "Social Needs", the banking product requirement shifts from:
View Explanation
Safety needs focus on security (Insurance, FD). Social needs involve belonging and status, leading to demand for consumer loans (Car Loan, Home Improvement) to improve lifestyle and social standing.
Question 81
In Wealth Management, "Asset Allocation" refers to:
View Explanation
Asset Allocation is the core strategy of wealth management. By diversifying across non-correlated asset classes, it aims to optimize returns for a given level of risk.
Question 82
If a bank sanctions a Home Loan with an LTV (Loan to Value) ratio of 80%, what is the "Margin" that the borrower has to contribute?
View Explanation
Margin is the borrower's own contribution. Margin = 100% - LTV%. So, 100 - 80 = 20%.
Question 83
Cross-selling is most effective when:
View Explanation
Successful cross-selling relies on "Right Product, Right Customer, Right Time". Selling a pension plan to a 25-year-old might fail, but selling a car loan might succeed.
Question 84
Which of the following services is generally excluded from pure "Retail Banking"?
View Explanation
M&A Advisory is a core Investment Banking/Corporate Banking function dealing with large companies. Retail banking focuses on individual consumers.
Question 85
"Search Engine Optimization" (SEO) is a marketing strategy used to:
View Explanation
SEO involves optimizing website content so that it ranks higher when customers search for keywords like "Best Home Loan" or "Credit Card", driving free (organic) traffic.
Question 86
"Net Interest Income" (NII) is defined as:
View Explanation
NII is the difference between the interest income a bank earns from lending and the interest it pays to depositors. It is the primary source of profit for a retail bank.
Question 87
Which of the following is a "Semi-Closed" Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI)?
View Explanation
Semi-Closed PPIs allow purchase of goods/services at a network of clearly identified merchant locations/establishments but do not permit cash withdrawal (unless fully KYC compliant and interoperable).
Question 88
A CIBIL Score of 750 and above is generally considered:
View Explanation
A score of 750+ (out of 900) indicates a responsible borrower with a good track record of repayment. Banks often offer lower interest rates to such customers.
Question 89
Centralized Processing Units (CPUs) for loans help in:
View Explanation
CPUs take the burden of processing, documentation, and sanctioning away from branches. This allows branches to focus on sales while specialists at CPU ensure uniform risk assessment and faster sanctions.
Question 90
Which of the following is a constraint in Retail Banking related to Technology?
View Explanation
While technology is an enabler, the rapid pace of obsolescence requires banks to constantly invest huge sums in upgrading Core Banking, ATMs, and Digital platforms, which is a significant financial strain.
Question 91
In Wealth Management, "Rebalancing" a portfolio involves:
View Explanation
Over time, market movements can change a portfolio's asset mix (e.g., equity becomes 70% instead of 60%). Rebalancing involves selling overperforming assets and buying underperforming ones to restore the original risk profile.
Question 92
Which of the following is NOT typically a retail banking asset product?
View Explanation
Working Capital limits for large corporates fall under Wholesale/Corporate Banking. Retail banking deals with individuals and small businesses.
Question 93
Targeting a specific group of customers with a specialized product (e.g., "Women's Savings Account") is an example of:
View Explanation
Niche marketing focuses on a specific subset of the market with unique needs. A women's savings account caters specifically to the financial needs and preferences of women.
Question 94
In branch profitability analysis, "Direct Costs" include:
View Explanation
Direct costs are those that can be directly attributed to the branch's operations. HO expenses and IT costs are typically indirect or allocated costs.
Question 95
What is the primary risk associated with Internet Banking for customers?
View Explanation
Since internet banking relies on digital credentials, the biggest threat is cybercrime, including phishing (stealing passwords) and malware (infecting devices).
Question 96
Which of the following retail loans is typically "Secured"?
View Explanation
Home loans are secured by the mortgage of the property being financed. Personal loans and credit card debt are generally unsecured. Education loans up to ?4 Lakh are collateral-free.
Question 97
Which Retail Banking model focuses on providing a full range of financial services to a customer under one roof?
View Explanation
Universal Banking is a system where banks provide a wide variety of financial services, including commercial banking, investment banking, and insurance, becoming a one-stop shop.
Question 98
The shift from "Brick and Mortar" banking to "Click and Mortar" banking represents:
View Explanation
"Click and Mortar" refers to the strategy of having both an online presence (Click) and physical branches (Mortar) to serve customers effectively.
Question 99
Why is "Customer Retention" considered more cost-effective than "Customer Acquisition"?
View Explanation
Studies show it costs 5-7 times more to acquire a new customer than to retain an existing one. Loyal customers are also more likely to buy more products (cross-sell).
Question 100
"Estate Planning" in Wealth Management involves:
View Explanation
Estate Planning ensures the smooth transmission of wealth to the next generation, minimizing legal disputes and taxes. It is a key component of comprehensive wealth management.
Question 101
In an Equated Monthly Installment (EMI), the interest component is calculated on:
View Explanation
Interest in EMI is calculated on the outstanding principal balance. As principal is repaid each month, the interest component decreases, and the principal component increases.
Question 102
A "Closed Wallet" is a prepaid instrument that:
View Explanation
Closed wallets (like Amazon Pay balance initially) are issued by an entity for facilitating the purchase of goods and services from that entity only. They do not permit cash withdrawal or redemption.
Question 103
Which type of risk is most prominent in Retail Banking due to the large volume of transactions?
View Explanation
With millions of transactions, the risk of system failure, fraud, human error, and cyber attacks (Operational Risk) is significant in retail banking.
Question 104
A strong "Brand" in retail banking helps to:
View Explanation
In a service industry like banking, trust is paramount. A strong brand signals reliability, making customers more likely to choose that bank and stick with it.
Question 105
Which of the following is considered a "Third Party Product" distributed by banks?
View Explanation
Mutual Funds are products created by Asset Management Companies (AMCs), not the bank itself. The bank acts as a distributor/agent.
Question 106
In the "Matched Maturity" method of Transfer Pricing:
View Explanation
This method is more accurate as it recognizes that long-term funds have a different cost/value than short-term funds, aligning internal pricing with market realities.
Question 107
Geographic Segmentation is useful for:
View Explanation
Understanding the geographic concentration of customers helps banks place branches/ATMs strategically and tailor products to local needs (e.g., agricultural loans in rural areas).
Question 108
A "Loan Against Property" (LAP) can be used for:
View Explanation
LAP allows borrowers to unlock the value of their property for various needs like business expansion, education, marriage, etc. Unlike a home loan, usage is flexible.
Question 109
"Chatbots" in digital banking are primarily used to:
View Explanation
Chatbots use AI to answer common questions instantly, reducing the load on human customer care agents and improving service availability.
Question 110
The Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCR) benefits retail customers by:
View Explanation
CKYCR stores KYC records centrally. A customer with a CKYC identifier can open accounts with other banks/insurers/mutual funds without submitting physical documents again.
Question 111
"Robo-Advisory" refers to:
View Explanation
Robo-advisors use algorithms to assess a client's risk profile and goals to recommend and manage an investment portfolio at a low cost.
Question 112
Which factor has the highest weightage in the calculation of a CIBIL Credit Score?
View Explanation
Timely repayment of past dues is the most critical factor (approx. 35% weightage). Defaults or late payments significantly damage the score.
Question 113
How do Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) affect branch profitability?
View Explanation
NPAs are a double blow: the bank loses interest income (income leakage) and must also set aside funds as provisions from its profits (expense), directly hitting the bottom line.
Question 114
Which of the following is an example of a "Retail Liability" product?
View Explanation
SCSS involves the customer depositing money with the bank. It is a liability for the bank.
Question 115
Services are "Intangible". This means:
View Explanation
Intangibility makes marketing services challenging. Banks must use physical evidence (branding, ambiance) and reputation to make the service "real" to the customer.
Question 116
"Phishing" is a security threat primarily associated with which delivery channel?
View Explanation
Phishing uses fraudulent emails or websites to trick users into revealing their Netbanking passwords and PINs.
Question 117
Which segmentation strategy is based on the customer's "Loyalty Status" (Hard-core loyals vs Switchers)?
View Explanation
Loyalty is a behavior. Segmenting based on loyalty helps banks design retention programs for loyal customers and acquisition offers for switchers.
Question 118
The "Unified Customer View" is a key benefit of which organizational model?
View Explanation
A horizontal structure integrates data across products, giving the bank a 360-degree view of the customer's total relationship (savings + loans + cards), enabling better service and cross-selling.
Question 119
For a new car loan, banks typically finance up to what percentage of the "Ex-Showroom Price" or "On-Road Price"?
View Explanation
While policies vary, banks generally require a margin of 10-15%. Financing 100% is rare and risky. On-Road price includes registration and insurance, which is the true cost to the borrower.
Question 120
The future of Retail Banking is expected to be driven primarily by:
View Explanation
The trend is shifting towards "Phygital" (Physical + Digital) banking, where data and AI are used to offer hyper-personalized products and seamless digital experiences.
Question 121
In the product development cycle for retail banking, the stage where the product is introduced to a limited audience to test viability is called:
View Explanation
Before a full-scale launch (Commercialization), banks conduct Test Marketing (Beta Testing) with a select group of customers or in a specific region to identify potential issues and refine the product.
Question 122
Which of the following factors typically has a NEGATIVE impact on an individual's CIBIL Score?
View Explanation
High credit utilization indicates credit hungriness and increases the risk of default, thereby lowering the score. Checking one's own score (soft inquiry) does not hurt it.
Question 123
Under RBI guidelines, interest on Savings Bank Accounts is calculated on:
View Explanation
Since 2010, RBI has mandated that interest on savings accounts must be calculated on a daily product basis (Daily Closing Balance) and credited at quarterly or shorter intervals.
Question 124
If a term deposit matures on a Sunday or a holiday, the bank pays interest for:
View Explanation
As per RBI/IBA rules, if a deposit matures on a non-business day, interest is paid for the intervening holidays/Sunday at the contracted rate until the next working day.
Question 125
In a Home Loan, "Pre-EMI" interest refers to:
View Explanation
During the construction of a property, the loan is disbursed in tranches. The borrower pays only simple interest (Pre-EMI) on the amount disbursed until possession, after which regular EMI (Principal + Interest) starts.
Question 126
The "Interest-Free Grace Period" on a credit card is applicable only if:
View Explanation
If the customer rolls over credit (pays only MAD), the interest-free period is withdrawn, and new purchases attract interest from Day 1. Full payment of the previous bill restores the grace period.
Question 127
In an NEFT transaction, if the funds are not credited to the beneficiary's account, the destination bank must return the funds to the originating bank within:
View Explanation
As per RBI guidelines, uncredited NEFT proceeds must be returned to the originating bank within 2 hours of the completion of the batch (B+2) to avoid penalties.
Question 128
For a Vehicle Loan, the bank's charge on the vehicle is noted in the RC (Registration Certificate) with the RTO. This process is creating a charge of:
View Explanation
Since the possession of the car remains with the borrower but the bank has a right to seize it upon default, the charge is Hypothecation. The RTO endorses this hypothecation on the RC.
Question 129
The SARFAESI Act, 2002 is NOT applicable to loans where the outstanding balance is less than:
View Explanation
Section 31 of the SARFAESI Act excludes loans where the amount due is less than ?1 Lakh OR where the remaining debt is less than 20% of the original principal and interest.
Question 130
In UPI, what acts as the unique identifier for routing transactions, replacing the need for Account Number + IFSC?
View Explanation
A VPA (e.g., name@bank) maps to the underlying bank account. It allows users to send/receive money without sharing sensitive bank details like account numbers.
Question 131
Which of the following is considered a "thin file" customer by Credit Information Companies?
View Explanation
"Thin file" refers to consumers who have insufficient credit history for the bureau to generate a reliable credit score. This makes assessing their risk difficult.
Question 132
The processing fee for a retail loan is typically collected at what stage?
View Explanation
Processing fees cover the administrative cost of assessing the loan application (credit checks, verification). It is usually upfront and non-refundable.
Question 133
To avoid TDS deduction on interest income from Fixed Deposits, a customer below 60 years of age must submit:
View Explanation
Form 15G is for individuals below 60 years (and HUFs) declaring that their total income is below the taxable limit. Form 15H is for Senior Citizens (60+).
Question 134
How does a "Charge Card" differ from a standard "Credit Card"?
View Explanation
A Charge Card (e.g., Amex) has no pre-set spending limit but does not offer the option to roll over the balance. The full bill must be paid by the due date, unlike credit cards which allow minimum payment.
Question 135
Lok Adalats are effective for recovering dues in NPA accounts up to a ceiling of:
View Explanation
Lok Adalats provide a low-cost, faster resolution mechanism for smaller loans. The monetary ceiling for cases to be referred to Lok Adalat is ?20 Lakh.
Question 136
In Retail Banking, "Chatbots" leverage which technology to simulate human conversation?
View Explanation
NLP allows the chatbot to understand, interpret, and respond to customer queries in natural language (text or voice), improving customer service efficiency.
Question 137
According to Kotler's product levels, a "Savings Account with Free Insurance and Concierge Services" represents:
View Explanation
The Augmented Product includes additional features/benefits (insurance, concierge) beyond customer expectations to differentiate it from competitors. Core is safety; Basic is the account itself.
Question 138
If the loan tenure increases while the interest rate and principal remain constant, what happens to the EMI?
View Explanation
Increasing the tenure spreads the repayment over a longer period, reducing the monthly installment amount (though the total interest paid over the life of the loan increases).
Question 139
The "Capital Gains Account Scheme" (CGAS) is used for:
View Explanation
If a taxpayer cannot invest capital gains in a new house/bond before the tax filing due date, they can deposit it in a CGAS account to defer tax liability.
Question 140
Which of the following is NOT a Credit Information Company (CIC) in India?
View Explanation
S&P is a global Credit Rating Agency (CRA). The four CICs in India are CIBIL, Equifax, Experian, and CRIF High Mark.
Question 141
According to RBI guidelines, Debt Recovery Agents (DRAs) must complete a training course and obtain certification from:
View Explanation
To ensure ethical behavior and knowledge of regulations, RBI mandates that all recovery agents must undergo 100 hours of training and pass the DRA examination conducted by IIBF.
Question 142
In the Securitisation process, the "Special Purpose Vehicle" (SPV) is set up to:
View Explanation
The SPV (usually a Trust) isolates the assets from the bankruptcy risk of the Originator. It buys the loans and issues securities backed by the cash flows from these loans to investors.
Question 143
ECS (Electronic Clearing Service) Credit is primarily used for:
View Explanation
ECS Credit is a "many-to-one" or "one-to-many" push system. Specifically, ECS Credit is used by a single institution to credit the accounts of many beneficiaries (bulk payments).
Question 144
For Housing Loans above ?75 Lakh, the maximum Loan to Value (LTV) ratio allowed by RBI is:
View Explanation
To mitigate risk in high-value loans, RBI mandates a lower LTV of 75% for loans above ?75 Lakh. (For loans up to ?30L: 90%; ?30L-?75L: 80%).
Question 145
If a customer changes their credit card "Billing Cycle", it essentially changes:
View Explanation
RBI allows customers to modify their billing cycle to align the due date with their salary date or cash flow convenience.
Question 146
How does MIS support Retail Banking strategies?
View Explanation
Management Information Systems (MIS) aggregate operational data to provide actionable insights for top management to strategize business growth and risk control.
Question 147
Offering an "Add-on Card" on a Credit Card account means:
View Explanation
Add-on cards are issued to immediate family members. The liability to pay lies with the primary cardholder, and the limit is shared.
Question 148
In a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA), the bank cannot charge for:
View Explanation
The core feature of BSBDA is that it is a zero-balance account. Banks are strictly prohibited from levying charges for non-maintenance of minimum balance.
Question 149
Sometimes, banks ask for a "Guarantor" for a Personal Loan. This adds which type of security?
View Explanation
A guarantee is a personal security. It acts as collateral because if the borrower defaults, the bank can recover dues from the guarantor.
Question 150
API Banking allows retail customers to:
View Explanation
APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) enable secure data sharing, allowing non-banking apps to initiate banking transactions, enhancing user experience and reach.
Question 151
If a credit card holder pays only the "Minimum Amount Due" by the due date, interest is charged on:
View Explanation
Paying only the minimum due revokes the interest-free period. Interest is calculated on the *entire* bill amount from the date of purchase, not just the unpaid portion, until the outstanding is cleared.
Question 152
Under Section 13(4) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002, which of the following actions can a secured creditor take without court intervention?
View Explanation
Section 13(4) empowers the bank to take possession of the secured assets, take over management, or appoint a person to manage the assets if the borrower fails to pay within 60 days of the demand notice.
Question 153
For Housing Loans between ?30 Lakh and ?75 Lakh, the maximum Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio permitted by RBI is:
View Explanation
RBI guidelines specify LTV ratios: Up to ?30L = 90%; ?30L to ?75L = 80%; Above ?75L = 75%. This ensures borrowers have sufficient equity in the property.
Question 154
A "Micro Enterprise" is defined as an entity where:
View Explanation
The new composite definition (July 2020) for Micro Enterprises requires Investment up to ?1 Crore and Turnover up to ?5 Crore.
Question 155
For Initial Public Offering (IPO) subscriptions via UPI, the transaction limit has been enhanced to:
View Explanation
To encourage retail participation in IPOs and G-Secs, NPCI enhanced the per-transaction limit in UPI to ?5 Lakh for specific categories like IPOs and RBI Retail Direct.
Question 156
An appeal against the order of the Recovery Officer in a DRT lies with:
View Explanation
Under Section 30 of the RDDBFI Act, an appeal against the order of the Recovery Officer lies with the Presiding Officer of the DRT itself, not directly to the DRAT.
Question 157
IMPS transactions are settled:
View Explanation
IMPS (Immediate Payment Service) provides 24x7 instant interbank electronic fund transfer. Transactions are settled individually and instantly.
Question 158
In an Education Loan, the "Moratorium Period" is the period during which:
View Explanation
Moratorium allows the student time to complete the course and find a job. Repayment starts after Course Period + 1 year (or 6 months after getting a job). Simple interest usually accumulates during this period.
Question 159
An award passed by the Lok Adalat is:
View Explanation
Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, the award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final. Since it is based on compromise/agreement, no appeal is allowed.
Question 160
On the TReDS platform, the discounting of invoices is done via a process of:
View Explanation
Multiple financiers (Banks/NBFCs) bid to finance the invoice. The financier offering the lowest interest rate (best bid) is selected, ensuring the MSME gets the best rate through reverse auction.
Question 161
The "Positive Pay System" for Cheque Truncation System is mandatory for banks to enable, but optional for customers to use, for cheques of value:
View Explanation
RBI guidelines state that banks must provide the facility for all cheques of ?50,000 and above. Banks may consider making it mandatory for cheques of ?5 Lakh and above.
Question 162
If a credit card is lost and reported immediately, what is the cardholder's liability for subsequent fraudulent transactions?
View Explanation
Once the loss is reported to the bank, the cardholder has zero liability for any transactions that occur *after* the reporting time. Most cards also offer "Zero Lost Card Liability" for a period prior to reporting as well.
Question 163
To be eligible for a Reverse Mortgage Loan (RML), the primary borrower must be a Senior Citizen of age:
View Explanation
The scheme is specifically for Senior Citizens. The primary borrower must be at least 60 years old. If a spouse is a co-borrower, they must generally be above 55 or 58 years (varies by bank).
Question 164
Does the SARFAESI Act apply to Agricultural Land?
View Explanation
To protect farmers, the SARFAESI Act explicitly excludes "any security interest created in agricultural land" from its purview. Banks must use civil courts or DRT for recovery in such cases.
Question 165
Under the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility Scheme, what is the maximum amount that can be remitted per transaction by a walk-in customer (non-account holder)?
View Explanation
For cash-based remittances (walk-in customers), the limit is ?50,000 per transaction with a maximum of 12 remittances per year. Account holders can remit higher amounts.
Question 166
Under the CGTMSE scheme, what is the extent of guarantee cover for Micro Enterprises for loans up to ?5 Lakh?
View Explanation
To support the smallest micro units, the guarantee cover is higher at 85% for loans up to ?5 Lakh. For amounts above ?5 Lakh up to ?50 Lakh, it is usually 75%.
Question 167
In AePS (Aadhaar Enabled Payment System), which type of transaction is generally NOT supported?
View Explanation
AePS is primarily used at Micro-ATMs/BC points for Cash Withdrawal, Deposit (at BC), Balance Enquiry, and Fund Transfer. Cash Deposit at an automated ATM requires a card, not just Aadhaar.
Question 168
Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) acquire NPAs from banks by issuing:
View Explanation
ARCs pay banks a portion in cash (e.g., 15%) and the balance in the form of Security Receipts (SRs), which represent an undivided right/interest in the acquired asset.
Question 169
Under PMAY-CLSS (EWS/LIG), what is the maximum annual household income to be eligible for the scheme?
View Explanation
EWS (Economically Weaker Section) is up to ?3 Lakh. LIG (Low Income Group) is ?3 Lakh to ?6 Lakh. Hence, the cap for the EWS/LIG category is ?6 Lakh.
Question 170
When a high-value credit card transaction is converted into EMI:
View Explanation
Banks offer EMI conversion at a reduced interest rate (e.g., 15-24% p.a.) compared to the standard revolving credit rate (36-42% p.a.) to encourage affordability.
Question 171
A SWIFT Code (BIC) consists of how many characters?
View Explanation
Standard SWIFT codes are 8 or 11 characters long. The first 4 are bank code, next 2 country code, next 2 location code, and last 3 (optional) branch code.
Question 172
Under the Security Interest (Enforcement) Rules, 2002, before selling an immovable secured asset, the Authorized Officer must serve a notice of _____ to the borrower.
View Explanation
The Sale Notice of 30 days is mandatory. If the sale fails and a subsequent sale is conducted, the notice period is reduced to 15 days.
Question 173
Under the MSMED Act, 2006, the penal interest payable by a buyer for delayed payment to an MSME supplier is:
View Explanation
This strict provision ensures timely payments to Micro and Small Enterprises. The rate is punitive (3x Bank Rate).
Question 174
"Card-on-File Tokenization" (CoF) replaces sensitive card details with a unique token. Who generates this token?
View Explanation
Merchants are not allowed to store card data. They request a token from the Card Network/Issuer, which is then used for future transactions.
Question 175
The maximum Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio for Loans against Gold Jewellery (for non-agricultural purposes) is currently:
View Explanation
RBI caps the LTV for gold loans at 75% to cushion against volatility in gold prices. (It was briefly raised to 90% during Covid but reverted).
Question 176
Registration of security interest (mortgage/hypothecation) with CERSAI must be done within ___ days of creation of the charge.
View Explanation
Banks must file details of security interest with the Central Registry (CERSAI) within 30 days to ensure public record and priority of charge.
Question 177
Typically, the "Cash Limit" on a credit card is:
View Explanation
Cash withdrawal is a high-risk feature. Banks restrict the cash limit to a fraction of the total limit to minimize risk and discourage cash advances.
Question 178
The "Money Transfer Service Scheme" (MTSS) is used for:
View Explanation
MTSS is a tied-up arrangement between overseas principals and Indian agents for personal remittances towards family maintenance. It allows ONLY inward remittances.
Question 179
NACH (National Automated Clearing House) is primarily a system for:
View Explanation
NACH replaced ECS. It is used for bulk transactions like salary payments, pension, dividend (Credit) and utility bills, EMI collections (Debit).
Question 180
For a Housing Loan of ?35 Lakh in a Metro centre to be eligible for PSL, the overall cost of the dwelling unit should not exceed:
View Explanation
The overall cost of the dwelling unit should not exceed ?45 lakh in metropolitan centres and ?30 lakh in other centres for the loan (up to limits) to qualify as PSL.
Question 181
Which Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) has the jurisdiction to entertain an application for recovery of debt?
View Explanation
Under the RDDBFI Act, a bank can file an application in the DRT within whose jurisdiction the defendant resides/works OR where the cause of action arises wholly or in part.
Question 182
The purpose of "Mortgage Redemption Insurance" (MRI) associated with a Home Loan is to:
View Explanation
MRI is a decreasing term life insurance policy where the sum assured reduces along with the outstanding loan balance. If the borrower dies, the insurance pays off the loan, protecting the family.
Question 183
In the context of UPI, what is a "VPA" and is it unique?
View Explanation
VPA (e.g., user@upi) acts as a unique identifier to map funds to a bank account. Duplicate VPAs are not allowed within the UPI ecosystem.
Question 184
A "Chargeback" in a credit card transaction refers to:
View Explanation
If a customer claims a transaction was fraudulent or goods were not delivered, they can raise a dispute. If valid, the bank forces a reversal of funds from the merchant, known as a Chargeback.
Question 185
Can a "Small Account" (BSBDA-Small) be used to receive foreign remittances?
View Explanation
Since Small Accounts are opened without complete KYC (simplified measures), they are restricted from receiving foreign remittances to prevent money laundering risks.
Question 186
For a housing loan to be eligible for Priority Sector Lending in a non-metropolitan center (population < 10 Lakh), the cost of the dwelling unit should not exceed:
View Explanation
In non-metro centers, the loan limit is ?25 Lakh, and the overall cost of the dwelling unit must not exceed ?30 Lakh for PSL eligibility.
Question 187
A "Pass Through Certificate" (PTC) implies that:
View Explanation
In a PTC structure, the SPV acts as a conduit. As borrowers repay loans, the SPV passes these cash flows directly to the investors who hold the PTCs.
Question 188
An enterprise has Investment = ?8 Cr and Turnover = ?60 Cr. How is it classified?
View Explanation
Wait! Small criteria: Inv = ?10 Cr AND Turn = ?50 Cr. Here, Turnover (?60 Cr) exceeds the limit for Small. Therefore, it moves to the next category: Medium (Inv = ?50 Cr, Turn = ?250 Cr). The categorization is based on the higher limit breached.
Question 189
Under the "Rupee Drawing Arrangement" (RDA), is there a cap on the number of remittances a beneficiary can receive?
View Explanation
Unlike MTSS (Money Transfer Service Scheme) which caps receipts at 30 per year, RDA has no specific cap on the number of transactions for personal purposes.
Question 190
In a "Flat Rate" loan interest calculation compared to "Reducing Balance" method, the effective interest rate (EIR) is:
View Explanation
In a Flat Rate, interest is calculated on the full principal for the entire tenure, ignoring repayments. This makes the effective cost nearly double that of a Reducing Balance rate (where interest is on outstanding principal).
Question 191
Civil Courts have jurisdiction to entertain matters related to SARFAESI Act enforcement actions:
View Explanation
To prevent delays, the Act specifically bars Civil Courts from issuing injunctions on matters that the DRT/DRAT is empowered to determine.
Question 192
In BBPS, an "OFF-US" transaction refers to:
View Explanation
OFF-US transactions leverage the interoperability of BBPS. For example, paying an Electricity Bill (onboarded by Bank A) using the PhonePe app (Customer OU).
Question 193
A "Credit Utilization Ratio" of 30% or less is generally considered:
View Explanation
Keeping credit utilization (Balance / Limit) below 30% shows responsible credit usage and positively impacts the score. Maxing out cards (>90%) hurts the score.
Question 194
In a Joint Account (Either or Survivor), if one holder dies, can the survivor change the nomination?
View Explanation
Upon death of one joint holder, the title vests in the survivor. The survivor can cancel the old nomination and make a new one in their own name.
Question 195
Providing a "Free Credit Card" with a Home Loan is an example of which product level?
View Explanation
The core need is housing finance. The loan is the basic product. Adding value-added services like free cards or insurance makes it an "Augmented Product" to differentiate it.
Question 196
While calculating "Turnover" for MSME classification, which of the following is excluded?
View Explanation
To encourage exports without fear of losing MSME status, the government allows the exclusion of export turnover from the aggregate turnover calculation.
Question 197
The monthly installment received by a senior citizen under a Reverse Mortgage Loan is:
View Explanation
Under Section 10(43) of the Income Tax Act, any amount received as a loan (lump sum or installment) under a reverse mortgage transaction is exempt from tax.
Question 198
If a settlement is reached in a Lok Adalat, the court fee paid by the plaintiff (bank) is:
View Explanation
To encourage compromise, the Legal Services Authorities Act provides that if a case is settled in Lok Adalat, the court fee originally paid is refunded to the plaintiff.
Question 199
Interoperability of Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) like wallets via UPI is mandatory for:
View Explanation
RBI mandated that Full-KYC PPIs (wallets) must be interoperable across UPI, allowing users to send/receive money to/from any bank account or other wallets.
Question 200
Which of the following best describes "Revolving Credit" on a credit card?
View Explanation
Revolving credit allows the borrower to pay only a minimum amount and roll over the rest of the debt to the next billing cycle, incurring finance charges.
Question 201
Loans to "Distressed Farmers" indebted to non-institutional lenders are eligible for Priority Sector classification under:
View Explanation
Loans to distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders (moneylenders) not exceeding ?1 Lakh per borrower are classified under Weaker Sections within the Priority Sector.
Question 202
In securitisation, "Credit Enhancement" is provided to:
View Explanation
Credit enhancement (like cash collateral or over-collateralization) absorbs initial losses, making the senior tranches of securities safer and higher-rated.
Question 203
If an NEFT transaction is returned by the beneficiary bank, the originating bank must credit the customer's account within:
View Explanation
Banks must credit the returned NEFT amount to the originator's account within B+2 hours to avoid paying penal interest at the repo rate + 2%.
Question 204
Loans against gold ornaments are generally sanctioned for a maximum period of:
View Explanation
To manage price volatility risk, gold loans usually have a short tenure (e.g., 12 months) with a bullet repayment option (interest + principal at end).
Question 205
When an ARC acquires a financial asset from a bank, it must pay a minimum of ____ of the acquisition price in cash upfront.
View Explanation
As per RBI guidelines, ARCs must pay at least 15% of the agreed price in cash, and the remaining 85% can be in Security Receipts (SRs).
Question 206
A "Digital Dashboard" in MIS provides:
View Explanation
Dashboards aggregate complex data into charts/graphs (like NPA levels, deposit growth), allowing executives to monitor health and performance at a glance.
Question 207
What does "NFT" stand for in the context of digital assets?
View Explanation
NFTs are unique digital assets verified using blockchain technology. Unlike money (fungible), each NFT is unique and cannot be exchanged like-for-like.
Question 208
RBI allows banks to offer differential interest rates on Term Deposits. However, which deposits CANNOT have a "No Premature Withdrawal" clause?
View Explanation
RBI mandates that for retail term deposits (up to ?15 Lakh, later revised to ?1 Crore in some contexts, but strictly for small retail), banks must allow premature withdrawal. Non-callable deposits are allowed only for bulk deposits.
Question 209
The "CHAMPIONS" portal launched by the Government is dedicated to:
View Explanation
CHAMPIONS stands for Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing the Output and National Strength. It serves as a one-stop shop for MSME solutions.
Question 210
Credit Information Companies (CICs) in India are regulated under which Act?
View Explanation
CICRA 2005 provides the legal framework for the registration, governance, and functions of Credit Information Companies like CIBIL.
Question 211
To file an appeal in the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT) against a DRT order, the borrower must pre-deposit what percentage of the debt due?
View Explanation
Section 21 of the RDDBFI Act mandates a pre-deposit of 50% of the amount of debt due as determined by the DRT. The Chairperson of DRAT has the discretion to reduce this amount, but not below 25%. This ensures that appeals are not used merely to delay recovery.
Question 212
In a Securitisation transaction, a "Clean-up Call" option allows the Originator to:
View Explanation
A Clean-up Call is an option permitting the originator to purchase the remaining assets in a securitisation scheme when the outstanding securities usually fall to 10% or less of the original issuance. This is done because the cost of servicing small remaining balances outweighs the benefits.
Question 213
Which of the following is a key feature introduced in "UPI 2.0"?
View Explanation
UPI 2.0 added features like linking of Overdraft (OD) accounts (earlier only savings/current were allowed), "Invoice in the Inbox" (viewing bills before paying), and "Signed Intent and QR" to enhance security and functionality for merchants and customers.
Question 214
If a credit card user withdraws cash from an ATM, the interest is charged from:
View Explanation
Unlike retail purchases (POS/Online) which may have an interest-free period, Cash Advances on credit cards attract interest charges immediately from the date of transaction until the date of payment, along with a one-time cash advance fee.
Question 215
Under PMAY-CLSS, the interest subsidy is calculated based on "NPV" at a discount rate of 9%. What does NPV stand for?
View Explanation
The subsidy amount is the Net Present Value (NPV) of the interest savings over the loan tenure (max 20 years), discounted at 9%. This upfront subsidy reduces the principal outstanding immediately.
Question 216
Which of the following transactions is PROHIBITED in a "Small Account" (BSBDA-Small)?
View Explanation
Due to relaxed KYC norms, Small Accounts are considered high risk for money laundering. Hence, crediting foreign remittances directly into these accounts is prohibited until full KYC is completed.
Question 217
Under the "Hybrid Security" model allowed in the CGTMSE scheme, the bank can:
View Explanation
In the Hybrid Security model, banks can take collateral for a portion of the loan and cover the uncovered portion under the CGTMSE guarantee scheme, allowing for higher loan limits (up to ?5 Crore).
Question 218
Under the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility, an NEFT-enabled bank branch in India can remit funds to Nepal. For a beneficiary maintaining an account with Nepal SBI Bank Ltd (NSBL), the remittance involves:
View Explanation
The remittance is originated in Indian Rupees, and the credit to the beneficiary in Nepal is afforded in Nepalese Rupees. The exchange rate is applied by SBI.
Question 219
The "Annuity" payments received by a senior citizen under a Reverse Mortgage Loan can be used for:
View Explanation
The loan is meant for the welfare of senior citizens. Use of funds for speculative, trading, or business purposes is strictly prohibited.
Question 220
Under Section 13(8) of the SARFAESI Act, the borrower has the right to redeem the secured asset by paying the entire dues:
View Explanation
Amendments to the Act state that the right of redemption is available to the borrower only till the date of publication of the auction notice or public notice for sale/transfer.
Question 221
Which of the following customer behaviors will IMPROVE a Credit Score?
View Explanation
A healthy "Credit Mix" (balance of secured and unsecured debt) is viewed positively by credit bureaus. Closing old accounts shortens credit history (bad), and frequent applications indicate credit hunger (bad).
Question 222
In the context of Retail Banking Products, "Core Product" refers to:
View Explanation
According to Kotler, the Core Product is the underlying need being satisfied. For a savings account, the core benefit is "Safety and Liquidity". The passbook is the "Tangible Product".
Question 223
Is a "Card Token" generated for a transaction universal?
View Explanation
Tokenization is device and merchant specific. A token generated for Amazon on your mobile cannot be used for Flipkart or on another mobile device, enhancing security.
Question 224
Which KPI (Key Performance Indicator) on a Retail Banking Dashboard measures the efficiency of collecting debts?
View Explanation
Collection Efficiency measures the amount collected against the total demand raised during a period. It helps track the quality of the retail asset portfolio.
Question 225
For a Housing Loan to be eligible for Priority Sector Lending in a "Metropolitan" centre (population = 10 lakh), the loan limit is:
View Explanation
In Metropolitan centres, the loan limit is ?35 Lakh (with overall dwelling unit cost = ?45 Lakh). In Non-Metropolitan centres, the loan limit is ?25 Lakh (dwelling cost = ?30 Lakh).
Question 226
AI-based "Virtual Assistants" (like Eva, iPal, Sia) in banking are primarily examples of:
View Explanation
These are intelligent interfaces that use NLP (Natural Language Processing) to converse with customers, answer queries, and perform basic transactions.
Question 227
An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of:
View Explanation
Every award of the Lok Adalat shall be deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court. It is final and binding, and executed directly as a decree.
Question 228
The "Rupee Drawing Arrangement" (RDA) differs from "Money Transfer Service Scheme" (MTSS) in that RDA:
View Explanation
MTSS has a cap of USD 2500 per transaction and 30 transactions/year. RDA has no specific limit on individual transactions for personal purposes, though trade remittances have caps.
Question 229
Is a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) eligible to open a Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) account?
View Explanation
SCSS accounts can only be opened by an "Individual" who has attained the age of 60 years. HUFs and NRIs are explicitly excluded from SCSS.
Question 230
The "Central Scheme of Interest Subsidy for Education Loans" (CSIS) provides full interest subsidy during the moratorium period for students whose parental income is up to:
View Explanation
Students from Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) with parental income up to ?4.5 Lakh per annum are eligible for full interest subsidy during the moratorium period for loans taken for professional courses.
Question 231
In securitisation, a "Clean-up Call" allows the originator to buy back the assets when the outstanding pool principal falls to:
View Explanation
RBI guidelines allow a Clean-up Call option to the originator to purchase remaining assets when the outstanding securities are not more than 10% of the original amount, facilitating the winding up of the SPV.
Question 232
Registration of security interest (like mortgage) with CERSAI is mandatory within ___ days of creation.
View Explanation
Under the SARFAESI Act, details of securitisation, asset reconstruction, or creation of security interest must be filed with the Central Registry (CERSAI) within 30 days.
Question 233
The "Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit" (BBPCU) which sets the standards for the BBPS ecosystem is:
View Explanation
NPCI functions as the authorized BBPCU, responsible for setting business standards, rules, and procedures for technical and business requirements for all participants.
Question 234
If a credit cardholder persistently pays only the "Minimum Amount Due" (MAD) for several months, what is the likely outcome?
View Explanation
Paying only MAD keeps the card active but the unpaid balance attracts heavy interest (30-40% p.a.), leading to a debt trap. It acts as a negative factor in credit scoring long-term.
Question 235
Loans to distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders are eligible for Priority Sector Classification under "Weaker Sections" if the loan amount does not exceed:
View Explanation
The specific sub-limit for this category (distressed farmers) within the Weaker Sections target is ?1 Lakh per borrower.
Question 236
The financing of invoices on the TReDS platform is done on a "_____" basis.
View Explanation
This is a key feature. Once the financier accepts the invoice and pays the MSME seller, the risk of non-payment by the corporate buyer is borne by the financier, not the MSME seller (Without Recourse).
Question 237
In a car loan, "Hypothecation" means:
View Explanation
Hypothecation creates a charge on movable property where possession remains with the borrower (owner) but the creditor has the right to take possession in case of default.
Question 238
Which SWIFT message type is used for a "Single Customer Credit Transfer" (sending money abroad)?
View Explanation
MT 103 is the standard SWIFT payment message used for cross-border wire transfers between banks for their customers. MT 202 is for bank-to-bank transfers.
Question 239
Section 34 of the SARFAESI Act bars the jurisdiction of:
View Explanation
Section 34 ensures that Civil Courts cannot entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which a DRT or DRAT is empowered to determine, preventing delays in recovery.
Question 240
The future of Retail Banking product delivery is moving towards "Hyper-personalization". This is achieved mainly through:
View Explanation
Using AI to analyze transaction history and behavior, banks can offer products tailored to the specific immediate needs of an individual customer (e.g., offering a travel loan just when a customer books a flight).
Question 241
In the 7Ps of Services Marketing, "Physical Evidence" is crucial for banks because:
View Explanation
Since a banking service cannot be seen or touched before purchase, Physical Evidence helps reduce the perceived risk and builds trust in the customer's mind.
Question 242
The core difference between "Multi-Channel" and "Omni-Channel" banking is:
View Explanation
In Omni-channel, a customer can start a loan application on a mobile app and finish it at a branch without re-entering data. In Multi-channel, the branch might not know what happened on the app.
Question 243
"Analytical CRM" primarily focuses on:
View Explanation
Operational CRM handles front-end interaction. Analytical CRM works in the background to analyze data for segmentation and targeted marketing.
Question 244
The "Code of Bank's Commitment to Customers" was issued by which body?
View Explanation
BCSBI (now dissolved, but historically relevant for the code) issued voluntary codes setting minimum standards of banking practices for member banks to follow.
Question 245
Segmenting customers based on their "Lifestyle, Personality, and Values" falls under:
View Explanation
Demographic uses age/income. Behavioral uses usage rates/loyalty. Psychographic dives deeper into the psychological attributes and lifestyle choices of the customer.
Question 246
"Hyper-personalization" in retail banking marketing is achieved primarily through:
View Explanation
Hyper-personalization moves beyond segment-based marketing to individual-based marketing, using real-time data (e.g., offering a travel loan the moment a customer books a flight ticket).
Question 247
Who owns the cash in a "White Label ATM" (WLA)?
View Explanation
While the WLA machine is owned by a non-bank entity (WLAO), the cash loaded into it is provided by a Sponsor Bank, as non-banks cannot hold currency chests.
Question 248
In which stage of the Product Life Cycle (PLC) do bank profits typically peak?
View Explanation
Profits usually peak in the late Growth or early Maturity stage. In the Growth stage, sales rise rapidly, and costs per unit drop (economies of scale). In Maturity, competition squeezes margins.
Question 249
If a bank fails to resolve a complaint within ____ days, the customer can approach the RBI Integrated Ombudsman.
View Explanation
The Internal Grievance Redressal mechanism of the bank is given 30 days to resolve the issue. If rejected or unresolved after 30 days, the customer can escalate to the Ombudsman.
Question 250
What is "Cash at POS"?
View Explanation
RBI permits cash withdrawal at POS terminals (up to ?2000 per day in Tier 3-6 centres and ?1000 in Tier 1-2 centres) to improve cash accessibility.
Question 251
Which of the following is an example of "Up-selling"?
View Explanation
Up-selling involves persuading a customer to buy a more expensive, upgraded, or premium version of the chosen item. The other options are examples of Cross-selling.
Question 252
What is the full form of "IMPS", which allows instant inter-bank electronic fund transfer via mobile?
View Explanation
Managed by NPCI, IMPS enables 24x7 instant money transfer.
Question 253
If a failed ATM transaction (cash not dispensed but account debited) is not reversed within T+5 days, the bank must pay a compensation of:
View Explanation
RBI mandates automatic reversal within 5 days. Failure attracts a penalty of ?100 per day beyond T+5, payable to the customer without demand.
Question 254
Which technology is essential for effective CRM to store and analyze vast amounts of historical customer data?
View Explanation
A Data Warehouse integrates data from various sources (loans, deposits, cards) to provide a unified view of the customer, which is the foundation of Analytical CRM.
Question 255
"Brand Equity" refers to:
View Explanation
Positive brand equity means customers are willing to pay more or choose the brand over competitors because of trust and recognition.
Question 256
The "Business Correspondent" (BC) model allows banks to:
View Explanation
BCs act as "extended arms" of the bank to provide financial inclusion services (deposits, withdrawals) in remote areas where physical branches are not viable.
Question 257
In the "SERVQUAL" model, "Responsiveness" is defined as:
View Explanation
Responsiveness measures how quickly and willingly employees respond to customer needs. Delays or indifference negatively impact this dimension.
Question 258
Open Banking primarily relies on which technology to share data securely?
View Explanation
APIs allow third-party providers (like Fintech apps) to access bank data securely (with consent) to offer integrated financial services.
Question 259
In case of an unauthorized electronic transaction where the fault lies with the customer (e.g., sharing password), the customer will bear the loss until:
View Explanation
Once the customer reports the incident, any subsequent loss is borne by the bank. However, the loss incurred *before* reporting is the customer's liability due to their negligence.
Question 260
Which promotion strategy involves paid communication through mass media (TV, Print, Radio)?
View Explanation
Advertising is a non-personal, paid form of communication used to reach a large audience to build brand awareness.
Question 261
In a "Brown Label ATM", the hardware is owned by a Service Provider, but the Cash Management and Connectivity are provided by:
View Explanation
Brown Label ATMs carry the logo of the Sponsor Bank, which handles cash and network connectivity, even though the machine is leased/owned by a third party.
Question 262
What is "Wallet Share" in CRM?
View Explanation
CRM aims to increase Wallet Share. If a customer has ?100 savings and keeps ?80 with Bank A, Bank A has an 80% wallet share.
Question 263
Banks must have a Board-approved "Compensation Policy" to cover:
View Explanation
This policy ensures transparency and standardized compensation for customers when the bank is at fault.
Question 264
"Relationship Pricing" involves:
View Explanation
This strategy rewards loyal, high-value customers, encouraging them to consolidate more business with the bank.
Question 265
Which feature of Blockchain ensures that data once recorded cannot be altered (tamper-evident)?
View Explanation
Immutability is achieved through cryptographic hashing. Changing one block would require changing all subsequent blocks, which is computationally impossible in a decentralized network.
Question 266
"SIM Swap Fraud" targets which security feature of mobile banking?
View Explanation
By fraudulently obtaining a duplicate SIM card, the attacker intercepts the OTPs sent by the bank, bypassing the second factor of authentication.
Question 267
In SWOT Analysis, "Opportunities" and "Threats" are considered:
View Explanation
Strengths and Weaknesses are Internal. Opportunities (e.g., new markets) and Threats (e.g., new competitors, regulations) are External environmental factors.
Question 268
The first stage in implementing a CRM strategy is usually:
View Explanation
Before any analysis or software can work, the bank must ensure it has accurate, consolidated customer data. Garbage In, Garbage Out applies.
Question 269
Banks are mandated to provide "Doorstep Banking" services to:
View Explanation
To ensure financial inclusion for vulnerable groups, RBI mandates doorstep services (cash pickup/delivery, KYC, Life Certificate) for seniors over 70 and the differently abled.
Question 270
A bank offering Savings Account, Current Account, Fixed Deposit, and Recurring Deposit is an example of:
View Explanation
Product Depth refers to the variety of variants offered within a specific product line (Deposits). Width would mean offering Loans, Insurance, Cards, etc.
Question 271
In the "Onion Model" of a product, offering "Free Airport Lounge Access" with a Credit Card is considered part of:
View Explanation
The Core is the credit facility. Basic is the plastic card. Expected is acceptance at shops. Augmented is the value-add (Lounge access) that exceeds expectations and differentiates the product.
Question 272
A "Cash Recycler Machine" (CRM) differs from a standard Cash Deposit Machine (CDM) because:
View Explanation
Standard CDMs only accept cash. CRMs "recycle" the cash—validating deposited notes and using them to dispense cash for withdrawals, reducing the frequency of CIT (Cash-in-Transit) replenishment trips.
Question 273
Which component of CRM is responsible for "Churn Prediction" (predicting which customer is likely to leave the bank)?
View Explanation
Analytical CRM uses data mining and predictive modeling on historical data to identify patterns indicating dissatisfaction or intention to leave (Churn), allowing the bank to take preemptive retention measures.
Question 274
If a customer reports an unauthorized electronic banking transaction within 3 working days, their liability is:
View Explanation
As per RBI guidelines on limiting liability, if the customer reports the unauthorized transaction within 3 working days of receiving the communication from the bank, the customer has **Zero Liability**, regardless of whether the fault lies with the bank or a third party.
Question 275
A bank targeting "Environmentally Conscious" customers with a "Green Deposit" scheme is using which segmentation variable?
View Explanation
This targets the customer's internal values, beliefs, and lifestyle choices regarding sustainability, which is a classic Psychographic variable.
Question 276
The "Account Aggregator" (AA) framework in India is designed to facilitate:
View Explanation
Account Aggregators are RBI-regulated NBFCs that enable individuals to share their financial data across institutions digitally and securely, with explicit consent.
Question 277
What is the standard transaction limit for IMPS (Immediate Payment Service) as enhanced by NPCI?
View Explanation
To promote digital transactions, the limit for IMPS was increased from ?2 Lakh to **?5 Lakh per transaction.
Question 278
Ethical Cross-Selling requires that:
View Explanation
Unethical cross-selling (misselling) erodes trust. Ethical selling focuses on fulfilling a genuine customer need, not just meeting a sales target.
Question 279
One of the key commitments under the BCSBI Code is "Right to Privacy". This implies:
View Explanation
Confidentiality is a core banker-customer duty. Exceptions include legal compulsion (Income Tax, Court), public duty, or customer consent (Credit Bureaus).
Question 280
Which component of Brand Equity refers to the "set of memories and associations" linked to the brand in the consumer's mind?
View Explanation
Brand Associations are the mental connections customers make (e.g., "SBI is safe", "HDFC is fast"). Positive associations build strong Brand Equity.
Question 281
What is the maximum limit for "Cash withdrawal at Point of Sale (POS)" per day in Tier I and II centers?
View Explanation
RBI limits cash withdrawal at POS to ?1,000 per day in Tier I and II centers, and ?2,000 per day in Tier III to VI centers.
Question 282
Which CRM strategy involves identifying the "Most Valuable Customers" (MVCs) and offering them exclusive benefits to ensure retention?
View Explanation
Since not all customers are equally profitable, banks use tiered service levels (Gold, Platinum, Priority) to focus resources on retaining high-value customers (Pareto Principle).
Question 283
Regarding "Life Certificate" submission for pensioners, banks are mandated to:
View Explanation
To ease the burden on senior citizens, banks must allow submission at any branch or digitally via Jeevan Pramaan (biometric). Doorstep banking is also an option.
Question 284
A "Push Strategy" in marketing involves:
View Explanation
Push strategy "pushes" the product through the distribution channel to the customer. Pull strategy (Advertising) motivates the customer to "pull" (seek) the product.
Question 285
Chatbots in banking primarily utilize which technology to improve over time?
View Explanation
ML allows Chatbots to "learn" from past interactions. The more they converse with humans, the better they become at understanding intent and providing accurate answers.
Question 286
The "Hub and Spoke" model in branch banking refers to:
View Explanation
This model optimizes costs. The Hub handles complex tasks (Foreign Exchange, Loan Processing) while Spokes focus on basic sales and service, reducing the need for experts at every location.
Question 287
"Churn Rate" in banking refers to:
View Explanation
Churn (Attrition) is the opposite of retention. High churn indicates dissatisfaction. Banks use predictive analytics to identify "at-risk" customers and retain them.
Question 288
The "Internal Ombudsman" (IO) in a bank examines complaints that are:
View Explanation
The IO acts as an independent apex level authority within the bank. Before the bank finally rejects a customer's complaint, it must be reviewed by the IO to ensure fairness.
Question 289
Banking products like "Philanthropy Services" or "Art Advisory" cater to which level of Maslow's hierarchy?
View Explanation
At the top of the pyramid, wealthy individuals look beyond accumulation to meaning, legacy, and personal passions (Self-Actualization).
Question 290
Which of the following is a valid application of Blockchain in banking?
View Explanation
Blockchain's distributed ledger ensures transparency and immutability, making it ideal for tracking trade documents (LCs) and sharing secure KYC data between institutions without duplication.
Question 291
"Adaptive Authentication" in internet banking refers to:
View Explanation
If a user logs in from a new device or country (High Risk), the system adaptively asks for extra proof (MFA). For routine logins (Low Risk), it might allow just a password. This balances security and convenience.
Question 292
"Customer Lifetime Value" (CLV) is calculating:
View Explanation
CLV helps banks decide how much to spend on acquiring and retaining specific customers. High CLV customers warrant higher investment.
Question 293
Under "Tournier vs National Provincial and Union Bank of England" (1924), which of the following is NOT a valid exception for disclosing customer information?
View Explanation
The four exceptions established are: 1. Under Law, 2. Public Duty, 3. Bank's Own Interest (e.g., suing customer), 4. Customer's Consent. Casual requests are strictly denied due to confidentiality.
Question 294
In the GAP Model of Service Quality, "Gap 1" refers to the gap between:
View Explanation
Gap 1 is the "Knowledge Gap". It occurs when management does not correctly understand what customers actually want.
Question 295
In Big Data analytics, "Veracity" refers to:
View Explanation
The 4 Vs are Volume (Scale), Velocity (Speed), Variety (Forms), and Veracity (Uncertainty/Quality). Poor veracity (bad data) leads to bad decisions.
Question 296
Self-Service Kiosks (e.g., Passbook Printers, Cash Deposit Machines) in e-Lobbies help banks to:
View Explanation
Migration of low-value, high-volume transactions (like updating passbooks) to automated kiosks frees up branch staff for high-value sales and advisory roles.
Question 297
Offering a "Platinum Credit Card" to a customer who already holds a "Silver Credit Card" is an example of:
View Explanation
Up-selling involves encouraging the customer to purchase a higher-end product (upgrade) than the one they currently have or are considering. Cross-selling would be selling a different product (like a loan).
Question 298
A customer has Zero Liability for an unauthorized transaction in which of the following cases?
View Explanation
Zero liability applies if the bank is at fault OR if there is a system breach elsewhere reported within 3 days. If the customer is negligent (shares OTP), they bear the loss until reporting.
Question 299
For a "Savings Account", what is the "Core Product"?
View Explanation
The core product is the fundamental benefit the customer is buying. For savings, it is the ability to keep money safe and access it when needed. The passbook/cheque book are Tangible products.
Question 300
Which Cloud Computing model allows banks to use software (like CRM or HRMS) hosted by a vendor over the internet without installing it locally?
View Explanation
SaaS delivers applications over the internet. Banks use SaaS for non-core applications to reduce IT maintenance costs and ensure easy scalability.
Question 301
In the 7Ps of Service Marketing mix for banks, "Physical Evidence" refers to:
View Explanation
Since services are intangible, customers rely on physical cues (Physical Evidence) like the look of the branch, brochures, and cards to assess quality and build trust.
Question 302
Which technology enables customers to bank via mobile phones without an internet connection using the code *99#?
View Explanation
NUUP (National Unified USSD Platform) uses USSD technology to allow basic banking services (balance check, fund transfer) on feature phones (non-smartphones) without internet data.
Question 303
In a Core Banking Solution (CBS), the "Centralized Database" architecture implies that:
View Explanation
CBS relies on a Data Center (DC) where all customer and transaction data is hosted centrally. Branches act as access points, updating this central database in real-time ("Anywhere Banking").
Question 304
The "Code of Bank's Commitment to Customers" was issued by which body?
View Explanation
BCSBI (now dissolved, but historically relevant for the code) issued voluntary codes setting minimum standards of banking practices for member banks to follow regarding transparency and fairness.
Question 305
Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in CRM implementation?
View Explanation
Effective CRM starts with gathering data, cleaning and analyzing it to create segments, and then executing targeted campaigns based on those insights.
Question 306
Segmenting customers based on their "Lifestyle, Personality, and Values" falls under:
View Explanation
Demographic uses age/income. Behavioral uses usage rates/loyalty. Psychographic dives deeper into the psychological attributes and lifestyle choices of the customer.
Question 307
Who owns the cash in a "White Label ATM" (WLA)?
View Explanation
While the WLA machine is owned by a non-bank entity (WLAO), the cash loaded into it is provided by a Sponsor Bank, as non-banks cannot hold currency chests.
Question 308
In which stage of the Product Life Cycle (PLC) do bank profits typically peak?
View Explanation
Profits usually peak in the late Growth or early Maturity stage. In the Growth stage, sales rise rapidly, and costs per unit drop (economies of scale). In Maturity, competition squeezes margins.
Question 309
If a bank fails to resolve a complaint within ____ days, the customer can approach the RBI Integrated Ombudsman.
View Explanation
The Internal Grievance Redressal mechanism of the bank is given 30 days to resolve the issue. If rejected or unresolved after 30 days, the customer can escalate to the Ombudsman.
Question 310
What is "Cash at POS"?
View Explanation
RBI permits cash withdrawal at POS terminals (up to ?2000 per day in Tier 3-6 centres and ?1000 in Tier 1-2 centres) to improve cash accessibility.
Question 311
Which of the following is an example of "Up-selling"?
View Explanation
Up-selling involves persuading a customer to buy a more expensive, upgraded, or premium version of the chosen item. The other options are examples of Cross-selling.
Question 312
What is the full form of "IMPS", which allows instant inter-bank electronic fund transfer via mobile?
View Explanation
Managed by NPCI, IMPS enables 24x7 instant money transfer using Mobile Number and MMID or Account Number and IFSC.
Question 313
If a failed ATM transaction (cash not dispensed but account debited) is not reversed within T+5 days, the bank must pay a compensation of:
View Explanation
RBI mandates automatic reversal within 5 days. Failure attracts a penalty of ?100 per day beyond T+5, payable to the customer without demand.
Question 314
Which technology is essential for effective CRM to store and analyze vast amounts of historical customer data?
View Explanation
A Data Warehouse integrates data from various sources (loans, deposits, cards) to provide a unified view of the customer, which is the foundation of Analytical CRM.
Question 315
"Brand Equity" refers to:
View Explanation
Positive brand equity means customers are willing to pay more or choose the brand over competitors because of trust and recognition.
Question 316
The "Business Correspondent" (BC) model allows banks to:
View Explanation
BCs act as "extended arms" of the bank to provide financial inclusion services (deposits, withdrawals) in remote areas where physical branches are not viable.
Question 317
In the "SERVQUAL" model, "Responsiveness" is defined as:
View Explanation
Responsiveness measures how quickly and willingly employees respond to customer needs. Delays or indifference negatively impact this dimension.
Question 318
Open Banking primarily relies on which technology to share data securely?
View Explanation
APIs allow third-party providers (like Fintech apps) to access bank data securely (with consent) to offer integrated financial services.
Question 319
In case of an unauthorized electronic transaction where the fault lies with the customer (e.g., sharing password), the customer will bear the loss until:
View Explanation
Once the customer reports the incident, any subsequent loss is borne by the bank. However, the loss incurred *before* reporting is the customer's liability due to their negligence.
Question 320
Which promotion strategy involves paid communication through mass media (TV, Print, Radio)?
View Explanation
Advertising is a non-personal, paid form of communication used to reach a large audience to build brand awareness.
Question 321
In a "Brown Label ATM", the hardware is owned by a Service Provider, but the Cash Management and Connectivity are provided by:
View Explanation
Brown Label ATMs carry the logo of the Sponsor Bank, which handles cash and network connectivity, even though the machine is leased/owned by a third party.
Question 322
What is "Wallet Share" in CRM?
View Explanation
CRM aims to increase Wallet Share. If a customer has ?100 savings and keeps ?80 with Bank A, Bank A has an 80% wallet share.
Question 323
Banks must have a Board-approved "Compensation Policy" to cover:
View Explanation
This policy ensures transparency and standardized compensation for customers when the bank is at fault.
Question 324
"Relationship Pricing" involves:
View Explanation
This strategy rewards loyal, high-value customers, encouraging them to consolidate more business with the bank.
Question 325
Which feature of Blockchain ensures that data once recorded cannot be altered (tamper-evident)?
View Explanation
Immutability is achieved through cryptographic hashing. Changing one block would require changing all subsequent blocks, which is computationally impossible in a decentralized network.
Question 326
"SIM Swap Fraud" targets which security feature of mobile banking?
View Explanation
By fraudulently obtaining a duplicate SIM card, the attacker intercepts the OTPs sent by the bank, bypassing the second factor of authentication.
Question 327
In SWOT Analysis, "Opportunities" and "Threats" are considered:
View Explanation
Strengths and Weaknesses are Internal. Opportunities (e.g., new markets) and Threats (e.g., new competitors, regulations) are External environmental factors.
Question 328
The first stage in implementing a CRM strategy is usually:
View Explanation
Before any analysis or software can work, the bank must ensure it has accurate, consolidated customer data. Garbage In, Garbage Out applies.
Question 329
Banks are mandated to provide "Doorstep Banking" services to:
View Explanation
To ensure financial inclusion for vulnerable groups, RBI mandates doorstep services (cash pickup/delivery, KYC, Life Certificate) for seniors over 70 and the differently abled.
Question 330
A bank offering Savings Account, Current Account, Fixed Deposit, and Recurring Deposit is an example of:
View Explanation
Product Depth refers to the variety of variants offered within a specific product line (Deposits). Width would mean offering Loans, Insurance, Cards, etc.
Question 331
In the context of the Promotion Mix, "Public Relations" (PR) differs from "Advertising" because:
View Explanation
PR aims to manage the spread of information between the bank and the public to build trust and reputation (e.g., press releases, community service), often perceived as more credible than paid ads.
Question 332
Which security mechanism binds a user's mobile banking app to a specific device to prevent unauthorized access from other devices?
View Explanation
Device/SIM binding ensures that the banking app works only on the device containing the registered mobile number's SIM card, preventing fraudsters from using stolen credentials on their own phones.
Question 333
"Sales Force Automation" (SFA) is a core component of:
View Explanation
Operational CRM includes tools for Sales Force Automation (tracking leads, sales pipeline), Service Automation, and Marketing Automation to streamline daily business processes.
Question 334
If a customer reports an unauthorized transaction after a delay of 4 to 7 working days, their liability is limited to:
View Explanation
For a delay of 4-7 days, the customer's liability is capped (e.g., ?5,000 for Basic Savings accounts, ?10,000 for other SB accounts, up to ?25,000 for Credit Cards with limit > ?5 Lakh). Beyond 7 days, it is as per board-approved policy.
Question 335
The characteristic of services where "Production and Consumption happen simultaneously" is called:
View Explanation
In banking (e.g., cash withdrawal at a counter), the service is produced by the teller and consumed by the customer at the same moment. They cannot be separated.
Question 336
What is the transaction limit per fund transfer using the USSD-based *99# service?
View Explanation
The limit for fund transfer using USSD (*99#) is capped at ?5,000 per transaction to minimize risk on feature phones.
Question 337
In the context of CRM, "Market Basket Analysis" is a data mining technique used to:
View Explanation
This technique analyzes purchase patterns (e.g., "Customers who bought Home Loans also bought Insurance") to design effective product bundles and cross-sell offers.
Question 338
As per the Cheque Collection Policy, if a local cheque is not collected within the stipulated timeframe (usually T+2), the bank must pay compensation at:
View Explanation
For delays in collection of local cheques beyond the timeline, banks typically pay interest at the Savings Bank rate for the period of delay. (For outstation cheques, higher rates apply for longer delays).
Question 339
"Penetration Pricing" strategy involves:
View Explanation
Banks may offer loans at lower interest rates or waive processing fees (Penetration Pricing) to attract new customers and gain market share in a competitive segment.
Question 340
An ATM transaction is considered "On-Us" when:
View Explanation
"On-Us" transactions (Issuer = Acquirer) are processed within the bank's own switch and are usually free/unlimited. "Off-Us" transactions go through the NFS switch and may attract charges.
Question 341
Which AI technology allows Chatbots to improve their responses over time without explicit programming?
View Explanation
ML algorithms enable chatbots to learn from historical interactions, identify patterns in customer queries, and refine their answers automatically.
Question 342
In the extended Marketing Mix (7Ps), "Internal Marketing" focuses on:
View Explanation
Internal Marketing views employees as internal customers. It ensures they are aligned with the bank's vision and skilled enough to deliver the brand promise to external customers.
Question 343
Direct Marketing Agents (DMAs) are third-party agencies appointed by banks primarily to:
View Explanation
DMAs act as an extended sales force, reaching out to potential customers for loans/cards, collecting applications, and doing preliminary checks, helping banks expand reach at lower cost.
Question 344
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of high "Customer Retention"?
View Explanation
Retention REDUCES overall marketing costs because acquiring new customers is far more expensive. Retained customers buy more and refer others.
Question 345
To facilitate tax exemption on interest income for Senior Citizens, banks must accept which form?
View Explanation
Form 15H is specifically for resident individuals aged 60 years or more to declare that their tax liability is nil, preventing TDS on interest.
Question 346
While Demographic segmentation looks at "Who" the customer is, Psychographic segmentation looks at:
View Explanation
Psychographics analyzes the internal drivers of behavior. For example, two people with the same age/income (demographic) might have different risk appetites (psychographic) - one buys FDs, the other Crypto.
Question 347
What is the maximum limit for "Cash at POS" (Cashback) per day in Tier III to VI centres?
View Explanation
To improve cash access in smaller towns/rural areas (Tier III-VI), RBI allows a higher limit of ?2,000 per day per card for cash withdrawal at POS terminals. (In Tier I/II, it is ?1,000).
Question 348
The "Next Best Product" (NBP) model in Analytical CRM helps banks to:
View Explanation
NBP models use predictive analytics to increase cross-selling success rates by offering the right product at the right time, rather than random selling.
Question 349
As per RBI's "Harmonization of TAT" for failed transactions, if an IMPS transaction fails and is not reversed by T+1 day, what is the compensation payable?
View Explanation
The penalty for delayed reversal of failed transactions (ATM, IMPS, UPI, Cards) is standardized at ?100 per day of delay beyond the prescribed TAT (T+1 for IMPS).
Question 350
Which type of Market Research involves collecting data directly from customers through surveys or interviews (First-hand data)?
View Explanation
Primary research gathers fresh data for a specific purpose. Secondary research uses existing data (reports, publications). Banks use primary research to test new product concepts.
Question 351
Since NEFT became 24x7, how many half-hourly settlement batches are there in a single day?
View Explanation
NEFT operates in half-hourly batches throughout the day, starting from 00:30 hours to 00:00 hours. Total batches = 24 hours * 2 = 48.
Question 352
A "360-degree view" of the customer in CRM means:
View Explanation
This unified view is essential for understanding the customer's total relationship value, identifying cross-sell opportunities, and providing better service.
Question 353
Which of the following is NOT a valid ground for complaint to the Banking Ombudsman?
View Explanation
The Ombudsman does not interfere in the commercial decisions of the bank (like credit sanctioning) unless there is a violation of RBI guidelines or fair practice code.
Question 354
Bancassurance allows banks to utilize which Marketing Mix element effectively?
View Explanation
Bancassurance leverages the bank's extensive branch network ("Place") to distribute insurance products to a captive customer base.
Question 355
A "Micro ATM" is operated by:
View Explanation
Micro ATMs are portable devices used by BCs in rural areas to facilitate biometric-based cash deposits/withdrawals using AePS.
Question 356
"Collaborative CRM" focuses on:
View Explanation
Collaborative CRM ensures that if a customer complains via email, the call center agent also knows about it, providing a unified interface.
Question 357
Can banks charge for "Doorstep Banking" services provided to Senior Citizens?
View Explanation
While the service is mandatory for eligible customers, banks are permitted to charge a reasonable fee for the service to cover costs.
Question 358
What is the primary risk of using Social Media for bank marketing?
View Explanation
Social media amplifies consumer voice. A single complaint can go viral instantly, causing significant reputational damage if not handled quickly.
Question 359
A "UPI Mandate" is used for:
View Explanation
UPI Mandate (AutoPay) allows users to pre-authorize a transaction that will execute later or recurrently, automating bill payments and investments.
Question 360
"Open Banking" creates value primarily by:
View Explanation
Open Banking fosters innovation by enabling a secure ecosystem where banks share data (with consent) with fintechs, who then create tailored financial management tools and services.
Question 361
Wealth Management differs from Investment Banking because:
View Explanation
Investment Banking serves corporations (raising capital), while Wealth Management serves individuals (managing and growing assets).
Question 362
Which of the following strategies involves "Strategic Asset Allocation"?
View Explanation
Strategic allocation is a passive strategy focusing on long-term goals. Tactical allocation involves active short-term deviations to exploit market opportunities.
Question 363
To qualify as a "Long Term Capital Asset", unlisted shares must be held for a minimum period of:
View Explanation
For listed shares, the holding period is >12 months for LTCG. For unlisted shares and real estate (immovable property), the period was reduced to >24 months. For debt mutual funds, it is >36 months.
Question 364
The "Sharpe Ratio" measures:
View Explanation
Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return - Risk Free Rate) / Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance.
Question 365
A "Probate" is:
View Explanation
Probate is the official proof of the validity of the Will and the executor's authority to administer the estate. It is mandatory for Wills executed in certain presidential towns involving immovable property.
Question 366
Gold Exchange Traded Funds (Gold ETFs) are:
View Explanation
Gold ETFs combine the flexibility of stock investment with the simplicity of gold investment. Each unit typically represents 1 gram (or less) of gold of 99.5% purity.
Question 367
Which of the following investments does NOT qualify for deduction under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act?
View Explanation
Only 5-year Tax Saver Fixed Deposits are eligible under 80C. Standard RDs or FDs less than 5 years do not qualify.
Question 368
In Retirement Planning, the "Accumulation Phase" refers to:
View Explanation
Retirement planning has two phases: Accumulation (working life, saving money) and Distribution (retired life, withdrawing money/annuity).
Question 369
If market interest rates rise, what happens to the price of existing fixed-rate bonds?
View Explanation
Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship. When market rates rise, new bonds offer higher coupons, making existing lower-coupon bonds less attractive, driving their price down.
Question 370
The benefit of "Indexation" reduces the tax liability on:
View Explanation
Indexation adjusts the purchase price of an asset for inflation using the Cost Inflation Index (CII), effectively reducing the taxable capital gain. (Note: Recent changes removed indexation for certain debt funds, but conceptually it applies to LTCG on eligible assets).
Question 371
A "Durable Power of Attorney" differs from a general POA because:
View Explanation
A standard POA ceases if the principal loses mental capacity. A Durable POA contains a specific clause allowing it to continue, which is crucial for managing the affairs of elderly clients.
Question 372
Which type of risk CANNOT be eliminated by diversification?
View Explanation
Systematic risk (e.g., inflation, war, recession) affects the entire market. Diversification removes unsystematic risk (specific to a company), but market risk remains.
Question 373
For a young investor (age 25) with a high-risk appetite and long-term goals, the recommended asset allocation would typically be weighted towards:
View Explanation
Young investors have a longer time horizon to ride out market volatility, making Equities the best asset class for wealth creation due to high long-term returns.
Question 374
Section 80D of the Income Tax Act allows deduction for:
View Explanation
Section 80D provides deduction for medical insurance premiums paid for self, family, and parents. The limit is higher for senior citizens.
Question 375
Albert Einstein reportedly called which concept the "Eighth Wonder of the World"?
View Explanation
Compound interest allows interest to be earned on interest, leading to exponential growth of wealth over time. It is the fundamental principle of wealth creation.
Question 376
Which ratio is crucial for evaluating a Real Estate Investment?
View Explanation
Rental Yield (Annual Rent / Property Value) measures the return generated by a property. It helps compare real estate with other income-generating assets.
Question 377
In a "Private Trust", the person who creates the trust and transfers assets into it is called the:
View Explanation
The Settlor (or Author/Grantor) creates the trust. The Trustee manages it. The Beneficiary receives the benefits. This structure helps in protecting assets and managing succession.
Question 378
Under Section 194-IA, a buyer of immovable property (other than agricultural land) valued at ?50 Lakh or more must deduct TDS at what rate?
View Explanation
The buyer is required to deduct TDS @ 1% of the sale consideration (or stamp duty value, whichever is higher) if the value exceeds ?50 Lakh.
Question 379
If a Mutual Fund scheme has a "Beta" of 1.5, it means:
View Explanation
Beta measures sensitivity to market movements. Beta = 1 means same volatility as market. Beta = 1.5 means if market moves 10%, the fund moves 15% (High Risk).
Question 380
The primary role of a "Relationship Manager" (RM) in Wealth Management is to:
View Explanation
RMs build trust and provide personalized service, orchestrating the bank's resources to solve the client's financial problems and grow their wealth.
Question 381
Under Section 56(2), gifts received from which of the following are FULLY EXEMPT from tax, regardless of value?
View Explanation
Gifts from "Relatives" (Spouse, Parents, Siblings, Lineal ascendants/descendants) are tax-free. Gifts from non-relatives > ?50,000 in a year are taxable.
Question 382
If a Hindu male dies "Intestate" (without a Will), his property is distributed according to:
View Explanation
In case of Intestacy, the law determines the heirs. For Hindus, Class I heirs (Mother, Widow, Children) have the first right to the property.
Question 383
Rupee Cost Averaging works best when the market is:
View Explanation
SIPs buy more units when prices fall. This reduces the average cost per unit. In a continuously rising market, lump sum investment might mathematically outperform SIP, but SIP manages volatility risk better.
Question 384
REITs (Real Estate Investment Trusts) allow investors to earn income primarily through:
View Explanation
REITs own rent-generating assets (offices, malls). They distribute the majority of this rental income to unit holders as dividends/interest.
Question 385
Which step follows "Analyzing the Client's Financial Status" in the Financial Planning Process?
View Explanation
The sequence is: 1. Establish relationship 2. Gather data 3. Analyze status 4. **Develop and Present Plan 5. Implement 6. Monitor.
Question 386
Any taxpayer whose tax liability for the year is _____ or more is liable to pay Advance Tax.
View Explanation
As per Income Tax Act, if tax payable (after TDS) is ?10,000 or more, advance tax must be paid in installments (15%, 45%, 75%, 100%).
Question 387
In a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), who has the right to demand a "Partition"?
View Explanation
Any coparcener can demand partition of the HUF property. After the 2005 Amendment, daughters are coparceners and have the same rights as sons.
Question 388
The practice of spreading investments across different assets to reduce risk is called:
View Explanation
"Don't put all your eggs in one basket." Diversification lowers unsystematic risk because different assets react differently to economic events.
Question 389
The deduction for "Interest on Home Loan" for a self-occupied property is available under Section 24(b) up to:
View Explanation
For a self-occupied property, the maximum deduction for interest on housing loan is ?2 Lakh per financial year. For let-out property, it is restricted to ?2 Lakh set-off against other income.
Question 390
Which of the following is a "S.M.A.R.T" financial goal?
View Explanation
S.M.A.R.T stands for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound. Option C defines the amount, purpose, and timeline clearly.
Question 391
Which measure of bond risk estimates the percentage change in a bond's price for a 1% change in interest rates?
View Explanation
While Macaulay Duration measures the weighted average time to receive cash flows, Modified Duration measures the price sensitivity of the bond to interest rate changes.
Question 392
Section 54F of the Income Tax Act provides exemption on Capital Gains arising from the transfer of:
View Explanation
Section 54 is for selling a house and buying a house. Section 54F applies when you sell ANY long-term asset (like Gold, Shares, Land) OTHER than a house, and invest the net consideration in a Residential House.
Question 393
The person appointed by a testator in their Will to administer their estate and carry out their wishes is called the:
View Explanation
An Executor is named in the Will. If no executor is named, the court appoints an "Administrator". The Executor derives authority from the Will itself.
Question 394
If an investor needs ?10 Lakhs after 5 years for a goal, and the expected return is 10% p.a., the calculation of the monthly investment required is based on:
View Explanation
To accumulate a future sum through periodic payments, we use the Sinking Fund method (derived from FV of Annuity formula). We need to find the annuity amount (PMT).
Question 395
In portfolio management, "Standard Deviation" is a statistical measure of:
View Explanation
Standard Deviation measures the dispersion of returns from the mean. It captures Total Risk (both systematic and unsystematic). Beta captures only Systematic Risk.
Question 396
Income arising from assets transferred to a spouse without adequate consideration is:
View Explanation
Under Section 64, if an individual transfers assets to their spouse for inadequate consideration, any income from such assets is clubbed with the transferor's income to prevent tax avoidance.
Question 397
Which of the following is a major liquidity risk associated with direct Real Estate investment?
View Explanation
Real Estate is highly illiquid. Unlike stocks or gold, finding a buyer and completing the legal process takes months, making it unsuitable for emergency funding.
Question 398
Can a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) make a Will?
View Explanation
A Will is a testamentary document of an individual. An HUF continues to exist even after the death of the Karta. Individual coparceners can bequeath their *share* in the HUF, but the HUF itself cannot make a Will.
Question 399
Arbitrage Funds are treated for tax purposes as:
View Explanation
Since Arbitrage Funds invest more than 65% in equity (hedged using derivatives), they are classified as Equity Oriented Mutual Funds for taxation, enjoying lower capital gains tax rates.
Question 400
What is the maximum deduction available under Section 80TTA for interest on savings accounts (for non-senior citizens)?
View Explanation
Section 80TTA allows a deduction of up to ?10,000 on interest earned from Savings Accounts (Bank/Post Office). It does not apply to FD interest.
Question 401
A "Systematic Withdrawal Plan" (SWP) is best suited for:
View Explanation
SWP allows an investor to withdraw a fixed amount regularly from their mutual fund investment, serving as a pension-like income stream.
Question 402
Does a Power of Attorney (POA) remain valid after the death of the Principal?
View Explanation
A POA is an agency relationship. The authority of the Agent dies with the Principal. The legal heirs must take over.
Question 403
Credit Risk Funds primarily invest in:
View Explanation
Credit Risk Funds take on higher credit risk by investing in lower-rated papers in exchange for higher interest income (Accrual strategy).
Question 404
What is the lock-in period for Equity Linked Savings Scheme (ELSS) Mutual Funds?
View Explanation
ELSS has the shortest lock-in period (3 years) among all Section 80C tax-saving instruments. (PPF is 15 years, Tax Saver FD is 5 years).
Question 405
What is the additional benefit of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) apart from gold price appreciation?
View Explanation
SGBs pay interest semi-annually on the nominal value, which is a unique advantage over physical gold or gold ETFs which do not generate regular income.
Question 406
A "Succession Certificate" is required to claim:
View Explanation
Succession Certificate validates the heirs' right to collect debts/securities due to the deceased. For Immovable property, a "Letter of Administration" or Probate is usually needed, or simple mutation based on legal heirship.
Question 407
In Modern Portfolio Theory, the "Efficient Frontier" represents:
View Explanation
Portfolios on the Efficient Frontier are optimal. Any portfolio below this line is sub-optimal because it offers less return for the same risk.
Question 408
When deducting TDS under Section 194-IA (Sale of Property), is the buyer required to obtain a TAN (Tax Deduction Account Number)?
View Explanation
This is a special exemption. For Sec 194-IA, the buyer does not need a TAN. They can file the TDS return (Form 26QB) using their PAN.
Question 409
How does "Financial Leverage" affect an investment portfolio?
View Explanation
Using borrowed money (leverage) to invest increases exposure. If the asset rises, returns are magnified. If it falls, losses are equally magnified.
Question 410
In India, "P2P Lending" platforms are regulated by RBI as:
View Explanation
Peer-to-Peer lending platforms are classified as a special category of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC-P2P).
Question 411
Which of the following is NOT treated as a "Capital Asset" under Section 2(14) of the IT Act?
View Explanation
Stock-in-trade is meant for sale in the ordinary course of business. Profits from it are "Business Income", not "Capital Gains".
Question 412
If there is a conflict between a "Nominee" in a bank account and a "Legal Heir" mentioned in a Will, who has the final beneficial ownership of the money?
View Explanation
A Nominee is merely a trustee/custodian who receives the money from the bank to discharge the bank. The ultimate owner is the Legal Heir as per the Will or Succession Law.
Question 413
An "Index Fund" is an example of:
View Explanation
Index funds simply mimic a market index (like Nifty 50) without active stock selection by a fund manager, resulting in lower costs.
Question 414
Is the lump sum or monthly installment received under a Reverse Mortgage Loan taxable in the hands of the borrower?
View Explanation
The payments are essentially loan disbursements, not income. Hence, they are tax-exempt for the senior citizen.
Question 415
Since the 2005 Amendment to the Hindu Succession Act, a daughter:
View Explanation
This amendment was a landmark step for gender equality, granting daughters equal coparcenary rights in HUF property.
Question 416
A Zero Coupon Bond is issued at:
View Explanation
Since it pays no periodic interest ("Zero Coupon"), the return comes from the difference between the discounted issue price and the face value received at maturity.
Question 417
Withdrawal from NPS Tier I account on maturity (at age 60) is tax-exempt up to:
View Explanation
The lump sum withdrawal (up to 60%) is tax-free. The remaining 40% must be used to buy an annuity (which is taxable as income when received).
Question 418
Dividend distributed by a REIT is taxable in the hands of the unit holder if:
View Explanation
If the SPV pays tax at the normal rate, dividend is tax-free for the investor. If the SPV opts for the lower tax rate (Sec 115BAA), dividend becomes taxable for the investor.
Question 419
A "Comprehensive Financial Plan" covers:
View Explanation
A holistic plan addresses all aspects of a client's financial life to meet short and long-term goals.
Question 420
CAGR stands for:
View Explanation
CAGR is the geometric progression ratio that provides a constant rate of return over the time period. It smoothens out volatility.
Question 421
Under the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF) scheme, withdrawal is tax-free after how many years of continuous service?
View Explanation
Withdrawals from EPF are tax-free if the employee has rendered continuous service for a period of 5 years or more. Otherwise, the withdrawal is taxable.
Question 422
Technical Analysis in investment decision-making relies primarily on:
View Explanation
Unlike Fundamental Analysis which looks at financial health, Technical Analysis assumes that future price movements can be predicted by analyzing past market data (charts, patterns).
Question 423
Donations made to the "Prime Minister's National Relief Fund" are eligible for deduction under Section 80G at:
View Explanation
Donations to certain funds like PMNRF or PM CARES Fund are eligible for 100% deduction without any qualifying limit (ceiling) on the donation amount.
Question 424
A Trustee has a "Fiduciary Duty" towards the beneficiaries. This means the trustee must:
View Explanation
A fiduciary relationship implies the highest standard of care and loyalty. The trustee must manage the trust property solely for the benefit of the beneficiaries, not for personal gain.
Question 425
Private Equity (PE) funds typically invest in:
View Explanation
PE involves investing directly in private companies to gain an ownership stake, often with the goal of restructuring and eventually selling for a profit (Exit).
Question 426
In financial planning, "Emergency Fund" should ideally cover expenses for:
View Explanation
Financial planners recommend keeping 3-6 months of living expenses in liquid assets (Savings, Liquid Funds) to handle unforeseen events like job loss or medical emergency.
Question 427
Long Term Capital Gains (LTCG) on listed equity shares exceeding ?1 Lakh in a financial year are taxed at:
View Explanation
Under Section 112A, LTCG on listed equity (held > 1 year) is taxed at 10% on gains exceeding ?1 Lakh, without the benefit of indexation.
Question 428
To achieve maximum diversification benefit, an investor should combine assets that have:
View Explanation
Diversification works best when assets do not move in the same direction. Negative correlation means when one asset falls, the other rises, offsetting losses.
Question 429
A "Living Will" (Advance Medical Directive) allows a person to:
View Explanation
Unlike a normal Will (for property), a Living Will deals with health decisions (Right to die with dignity/Passive Euthanasia), recognized by the Supreme Court of India.
Question 430
In NPS, the annuity purchased at retirement provides pension:
View Explanation
Annuity plans typically provide regular income for life. Options include Life Annuity, Joint Life Annuity, and Return of Purchase Price to nominees.
Question 431
A lower "Expense Ratio" in a Mutual Fund usually leads to:
View Explanation
The Expense Ratio is deducted from the fund's assets. A lower ratio means less money is taken out for management fees, leaving more money invested to grow, thus increasing NAV/returns.
Question 432
House Rent Allowance (HRA) exemption under Section 10(13A) is the LEAST of: 1. Actual HRA received. 2. Rent paid minus 10% of Salary. 3. _____?
View Explanation
The third condition for HRA exemption calculation depends on the location of the accommodation: 50% of salary for Metro cities (Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai) and 40% for other places.
Question 433
Which index in India tracks the prices of residential properties across major cities?
View Explanation
Launched by the National Housing Bank (NHB), RESIDEX is India's first official housing price index aimed at tracking property price movements.
Question 434
Why is periodic "Portfolio Review" essential in Wealth Management?
View Explanation
Life events (marriage, retirement) change risk appetite. Markets change asset values. Reviews ensure the investment strategy remains relevant and effective.
Question 435
Can a minor be a beneficiary in a Trust?
View Explanation
A beneficiary is the person for whose benefit the trust is created. A minor, being incompetent to contract, cannot be a trustee but can certainly be a beneficiary.
Question 436
In Technical Analysis, a "Golden Cross" occurs when:
View Explanation
The Golden Cross (e.g., 50-day MA crossing above 200-day MA) is a widely interpreted bullish breakout pattern indicating potential market rise.
Question 437
Short Term Capital Loss (STCL) can be set off against:
View Explanation
STCL can be adjusted against both STCG and LTCG. However, Long Term Capital Loss (LTCL) can be adjusted ONLY against LTCG.
Question 438
The maximum deposit limit for an individual in the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) is:
View Explanation
The limit was enhanced from ?15 Lakh to **?30 Lakh in the Union Budget 2023-24 to provide better social security to seniors.
Question 439
Which document contains the "Risk Factors" associated with a Mutual Fund scheme?
View Explanation
SID details the investment objective, asset allocation, investment strategy, and risk factors to help investors make informed decisions.
Question 440
MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) primarily facilitates trading in:
View Explanation
MCX is India's largest commodity derivatives exchange allowing trading in metals, energy, and agricultural commodities.
Question 441
Under Section 194IB, an individual/HUF (not liable to audit) paying monthly rent exceeding _____ must deduct TDS @ 5%.
View Explanation
Individuals/HUFs paying rent > ?50,000 per month must deduct 5% TDS, even if they are not subject to tax audit.
Question 442
"Performance Attribution Analysis" helps a portfolio manager to:
View Explanation
It breaks down performance to see if the manager added value by picking the right sectors (Allocation) or the right stocks within those sectors (Selection).
Question 443
The primary duty of an "Executor" of a Will is to:
View Explanation
The executor acts as a fiduciary to carry out the testator's instructions, settle liabilities, and ensure beneficiaries receive their share.
Question 444
Which category of stocks generally offers high growth potential but carries high volatility and risk?
View Explanation
Small and Mid-cap companies are in the growth phase. They can grow faster than large established companies but are more vulnerable to economic downturns.
Question 445
Senior Citizens (aged 60+) are exempted from paying Advance Tax provided they:
View Explanation
Resident Senior Citizens without business income are not liable to pay advance tax installments; they can pay Self-Assessment Tax before filing returns.
Question 446
Under Reverse Mortgage, the loan amount disbursed to the senior citizen is based on:
View Explanation
Older borrowers and higher property values allow for higher loan amounts (and thus higher monthly payments) because the loan tenure is shorter or the asset backing is stronger.
Question 447
In investment terms, "Alpha" represents:
View Explanation
Positive Alpha indicates that the fund manager has outperformed the market (benchmark). Negative Alpha means underperformance.
Question 448
What is the tenor of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB), and when is premature redemption allowed?
View Explanation
SGBs have a tenure of 8 years. However, early redemption is allowed after the 5th year from the date of issue on interest payment dates.
Question 449
Upon the death of a Karta of an HUF, the HUF:
View Explanation
HUF has perpetual succession. It is not affected by the death of the Karta. Management passes to the next senior member.
Question 450
"Risk Profiling" of a client involves assessing:
View Explanation
A proper risk profile considers both financial ability (assets, liabilities, age) and psychological willingness to handle market volatility.
Question 451
The "Treynor Ratio" measures the excess return of a portfolio per unit of:
View Explanation
While Sharpe Ratio uses Standard Deviation (Total Risk), Treynor Ratio uses Beta (Systematic Risk). It is appropriate for well-diversified portfolios where unsystematic risk has been eliminated.
Question 452
To claim exemption under Section 54 for Capital Gains arising from the sale of a residential house, the new house must be purchased within:
View Explanation
For purchase, the window is 1 year before or 2 years after sale. For construction of a new house, the time limit is 3 years after the sale date.
Question 453
In a "Revocable Trust", the Settlor (Creator) retains the right to:
View Explanation
In a revocable trust, the transfer is not permanent. The Settlor can take back control. Consequently, income from such a trust is usually taxable in the hands of the Settlor (Clubbing provisions).
Question 454
A bond trading at a price lower than its Face Value is said to be trading at a:
View Explanation
If a bond with a face value of ?1000 is selling for ?950, it is at a discount. This happens when current interest rates are higher than the bond's coupon rate.
Question 455
"Tactical Asset Allocation" involves:
View Explanation
It acts as a market timing strategy. For example, if the stock market is undervalued, a manager might temporarily increase equity exposure above the long-term target.
Question 456
Mr. X gifts ?10 Lakhs to his wife. She invests it in a Fixed Deposit earning ?70,000 interest. Who is liable to pay tax on this interest income?
View Explanation
Under Section 64(1)(iv), income arising from assets transferred to a spouse without adequate consideration is clubbed with the income of the transferor (Mr. X). However, if Mrs. X reinvests the interest, income on that reinvestment belongs to her.
Question 457
NCDEX (National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange) is primarily known for trading in:
View Explanation
While MCX leads in metals and energy, NCDEX has a dominant market share in agricultural commodities like chana, soybean, castor seed, etc.
Question 458
A Power of Attorney creating a right over immovable property worth ?100 or more must be:
View Explanation
Under the Registration Act, any document (including POA) conferring authority to sell or create rights in immovable property requires mandatory registration.
Question 459
Voluntary Provident Fund (VPF) contribution:
View Explanation
VPF enjoys the same interest rate and tax benefits as EPF (subject to the ?2.5 Lakh cap on tax-free interest). It gives flexibility to save more for retirement.
Question 460
An "Inverted Yield Curve" (short-term rates higher than long-term rates) is often considered a predictor of:
View Explanation
Normally, long-term rates are higher. When short-term rates exceed long-term ones, it suggests investors expect future rates to fall due to a slowing economy/recession.
Question 461
Under Section 80TTB, Senior Citizens can claim a deduction on interest income from deposits (Savings + Fixed) up to:
View Explanation
This higher limit (compared to ?10,000 for non-seniors under 80TTA) includes interest from FDs, RDs, and Savings accounts.
Question 462
Art Funds are a type of:
View Explanation
Art funds pool capital to buy art pieces. SEBI halted many collective investment schemes (Art funds) in the past that were unauthorized, and now they fall under the AIF regulations.
Question 463
Does India currently levy "Estate Duty" (Inheritance Tax) on the transfer of property upon death?
View Explanation
Currently, there is no inheritance tax in India. Assets received under a Will or inheritance are also exempt from Income Tax under Section 56(2).
Question 464
If a Mutual Fund has Total Assets of ?100 Cr, Liabilities of ?10 Cr, and 5 Crore units outstanding, the NAV per unit is:
View Explanation
NAV = (Assets - Liabilities) / Number of Units = (100 - 10) / 5 = 90 / 5 = ?18.
Question 465
Leave Travel Allowance (LTA) exemption is available for:
View Explanation
LTA exemption applies only to the "travel fare" component (not stay/food) for travel within India, restricted to 2 journeys in a 4-year block.
Question 466
Hedge Funds differ from Mutual Funds mainly because:
View Explanation
Hedge funds are less regulated pools of capital that seek absolute returns using risky strategies. They typically require a very high minimum investment.
Question 467
Who holds the "Legal Title" to the trust property?
View Explanation
In a Trust, the Legal Title (ownership on paper) lies with the Trustee, while the Beneficial Title (right to enjoyment) lies with the Beneficiary.
Question 468
Risk Tolerance is best defined as:
View Explanation
Risk Capacity is financial (objective). Risk Tolerance is emotional/psychological (subjective). A wealthy person may have high capacity but low tolerance (fear of loss).
Question 469
For a person who has NOT filed Income Tax Returns for the past 3 years, TDS on cash withdrawal under Section 194N applies if withdrawals exceed:
View Explanation
For non-filers, the threshold is tighter. TDS is 2% for withdrawals > ?20 Lakh and 5% for > ?1 Crore. For filers, it applies only above ?1 Crore.
Question 470
Capital Gains Tax on redemption of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) is EXEMPT if:
View Explanation
Exemption from capital gains tax is available only if the bond is held till maturity. Early redemption or sale on exchange attracts Capital Gains Tax (with indexation benefits usually).
Question 471
SEBI has reduced the minimum application value for REITs and InvITs to allow retail participation. The current minimum application value is range-bound around:
View Explanation
To deepen the market, SEBI reduced the trading lot to 1 unit and application value to the range of ?10,000-15,000, making it accessible to small investors.
Question 472
In NPS, PFM stands for:
View Explanation
PFMs are the professional fund management companies appointed by PFRDA to invest the pension corpus in various asset classes (Equity, Corp Bonds, Govt Securities).
Question 473
Repayment of the "Principal" component of a housing loan is eligible for deduction under:
View Explanation
Principal repayment falls under the overall ?1.5 Lakh limit of Section 80C. Interest repayment falls under Section 24(b) (up to ?2 Lakh).
Question 474
A bond rated "AAA" indicates:
View Explanation
AAA is the highest rating assigned by credit rating agencies, signifying the borrower has an extremely strong capacity to meet financial commitments.
Question 475
For a Will to be valid in India, it must be attested by at least:
View Explanation
Under the Indian Succession Act, a Will must be signed by the testator in the presence of at least two witnesses, who must also sign the Will.
Question 476
In personal financial planning, the "Liquidity Ratio" is calculated as:
View Explanation
This ratio indicates how many months a person can survive without income using their liquid cash/assets. Ideally, it should be 3-6.
Question 477
As per Finance Act 2023, gains from Debt Mutual Funds (where equity holding is <= 35%) are taxed as:
View Explanation
This was a major change. Debt funds are now taxed at the investor's marginal slab rate, and the indexation benefit for LTCG has been removed for funds purchased after April 1, 2023.
Question 478
Fundamental Analysis involves analyzing "EIC". What does EIC stand for?
View Explanation
It is a top-down approach: First analyze the Economy (Macro), then the specific Industry (Sector), and finally the Company (Financials) to determine fair value.
Question 479
In India, Hedge Funds are registered under SEBI AIF Regulations as:
View Explanation
Category III AIFs employ diverse or complex trading strategies (including leverage and derivatives) and include Hedge Funds.
Question 480
The concept of "Financial Freedom" is best described as:
View Explanation
Financial Freedom is the state where your assets generate enough cash flow to maintain your lifestyle, giving you the choice to work or not.