Question 1
Which of the following statements best describes the "K-shaped recovery" witnessed in the Indian economy post-pandemic?
View Explanation
A K-shaped recovery occurs when different parts of the economy recover at different rates, times, or magnitudes. For instance, technology and large corporate sectors grew, while MSMEs and contact-intensive sectors struggled.
Question 2
Consider the following statements regarding the "Rolling Plan" in India: \n1. It was introduced by the Janata Party government. \n2. It meant that the plan would be assessed and extended annually. \nWhich of the statements is/are correct?
View Explanation
The Rolling Plan (1978-80) was introduced by the Janata Party government. It involved a plan for the current year, a plan for a fixed number of years, and a perspective plan, which were revised annually.
Question 3
Gross Value Added (GVA) at Basic Prices is defined as:
View Explanation
GVA at Basic Prices = GDP at Market Prices - (Product Taxes - Product Subsidies). Conversely, GDP at Market Prices = GVA at Basic Prices + Net Product Taxes.
Question 4
Under the revised MSME classification (2020), a "Small Enterprise" is one where:
View Explanation
Micro: Inv<1Cr, Turn<5Cr. Small: Inv<10Cr, Turn<50Cr. Medium: Inv<50Cr, Turn<250Cr.
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a vertical/function of NITI Aayog?
View Explanation
Regulation of Capital Markets is the function of SEBI. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank with functions like policy design, cooperative federalism, and monitoring.
Question 6
Which category of banks has the highest Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of ANBC?
View Explanation
RRBs and SFBs have a mandatory PSL target of 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC). Domestic commercial banks generally have a target of 40%.
Question 7
Which model of infrastructure investment allows the private player to recover costs through user charges (tolls) over a concession period?
View Explanation
In the BOT-Toll model, the private partner builds, operates, and maintains the infrastructure and recovers the investment by collecting tolls from users. In EPC, the government funds the project.
Question 8
What is the primary difference between FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) and FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investment)?
View Explanation
FDI indicates a long-term interest and control (usually >10% stake), whereas FPI involves buying shares/bonds for shorter-term gains without seeking control.
Question 9
Which generation of economic reforms in India emphasized the reform of factor markets (Land, Labor, Capital)?
View Explanation
First generation reforms (1991) focused on product markets (liberalization). Second generation reforms focus on factor markets like labor laws, land acquisition, and legal frameworks.
Question 10
The "RODTEP" scheme (Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products) was introduced to replace which scheme?
View Explanation
RODTEP replaced MEIS because MEIS was found to be non-compliant with WTO rules. RODTEP ensures that exporters are refunded embedded taxes/duties that were not previously rebated.
Question 11
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a "Mixed Economy" like India?
View Explanation
A mixed economy involves both public and private sectors. "Complete state ownership" is a characteristic of a Socialist/Command economy, not a mixed one.
Question 12
The strategy document "Strategy for New India @ 75" was released by:
View Explanation
NITI Aayog released the comprehensive national strategy document titled "Strategy for New India @ 75" to define objectives for 2022-23.
Question 13
Which sector typically contributes the highest to India’s Gross Value Added (GVA)?
View Explanation
The Services sector is the largest contributor to India's GVA, accounting for over 53% of the total economy.
Question 14
What is the primary objective of the "PM-KISAN" scheme?
View Explanation
PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) provides direct income support of ?6,000 per year to landholding farmer families.
Question 15
Under Priority Sector Lending, what is the target for "Small and Marginal Farmers" for domestic commercial banks (as of 2024)?
View Explanation
Within the 18% target for Agriculture, a specific sub-target of 10% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) is mandated for Small and Marginal Farmers.
Question 16
Which of the following forms of "Social Infrastructure"?
View Explanation
Social infrastructure refers to structures that support social services like healthcare (hospitals) and education (schools), improving the quality of human capital. Roads and power are "Physical Infrastructure".
Question 17
In the context of globalization, what does "outsourcing" typically involve?
View Explanation
Outsourcing involves contracting work out to a third party, often in another country (offshoring), to reduce costs or access specialized skills (e.g., BPO services in India).
Question 18
The Narasimham Committee II (1998) mainly focused on:
View Explanation
While Narasimham-I dealt with deregulation, Narasimham-II focused on "Second Generation Reforms" like stricter prudential norms, capital adequacy (CAR), and cleaning up NPAs.
Question 19
Which institution primarily provides Export Credit Insurance in India?
View Explanation
ECGC Limited is a government enterprise that provides export credit insurance facilities to exporters and banks to protect them from the risk of non-payment by foreign buyers.
Question 20
Which organization is known as the "World Bank"?
View Explanation
The World Bank consists of two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
Question 21
According to the revised MSME classification (July 2020), an enterprise is classified as "Medium" if:
View Explanation
The new composite criteria for Medium Enterprises requires Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment does not exceed ?50 crore and Annual Turnover does not exceed ?250 crore. Both conditions must be met. Exports are excluded from the turnover calculation.
Question 22
Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), the funding sharing pattern between the Centre, States, and Private Sector is targeted to be approximately:
View Explanation
The NIP envisages an investment of ?111 lakh crore with a funding share of 39% by the Centre, 40% (revised to 39%) by States, and 21-22% by the Private Sector to boost infrastructure.
Question 23
Consider the following statements regarding Convertibility in India: 1. The Rupee is fully convertible on the Current Account. 2. The Rupee is fully convertible on the Capital Account. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
View Explanation
India accepted full Current Account Convertibility in August 1994 (adhering to IMF Article VIII). However, Capital Account Convertibility is still partial/managed, with restrictions on debt flows and individual remittances (LRS limits).
Question 24
The "Second Generation Reforms" in India focus primarily on which of the following areas?
View Explanation
While first-generation reforms (1991) focused on product markets and liberalization, second-generation reforms aim at difficult structural changes in factor markets like labor laws, land acquisition, and legal/judicial reforms.
Question 25
What is the primary tax benefit for a unit set up in a Special Economic Zone (SEZ) under the SEZ Act, 2005?
View Explanation
SEZ units enjoy 100% income tax exemption on export income for the first 5 years, 50% for the next 5 years, and 50% of the plowed-back export profit for the next 5 years (Section 10AA of Income Tax Act).
Question 26
Which arm of the World Bank Group specifically provides interest-free loans (credits) and grants to the poorest countries?
View Explanation
IDA is known as the "soft loan window" of the World Bank. It offers concessional loans with zero or very low interest rates and long repayment periods to the world's poorest developing countries.
Question 27
India's "Panchamrit" commitment at COP26 (Glasgow) includes the target to achieve Net Zero Carbon Emissions by which year?
View Explanation
While many developed nations target 2050, India has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by 2070, balancing its development needs with climate responsibility. Other targets like 500GW non-fossil capacity apply to 2030.
Question 28
The "Export Preparedness Index" is released by which organization to rank Indian states?
View Explanation
NITI Aayog, in partnership with the Institute of Competitiveness, releases the Export Preparedness Index to evaluate states' readiness and performance in exports, promoting competitive federalism.
Question 29
Which type of unemployment increases during a recession and decreases during economic expansion?
View Explanation
Cyclical unemployment is directly related to the business cycle. When demand falls (recession), businesses fire workers; when demand rises (expansion), they hire. It implies a lack of aggregate demand.
Question 30
Why did the RBI introduce the "External Benchmark Lending Rate" (EBLR) system for banks?
View Explanation
Under the MCLR system, banks were slow to pass on Repo Rate cuts to customers. EBLR links lending rates directly to an external benchmark (like Repo), ensuring that any policy rate change by RBI is immediately reflected in the borrower's interest rate.
Question 31
The 15th Finance Commission recommended what percentage of the divisible pool of taxes to be shared with States (Vertical Devolution)?
View Explanation
The 14th FC recommended 42%. The 15th FC adjusted this to 41%, accounting for the reorganization of the state of Jammu & Kashmir into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh), which are now funded by the Centre.
Question 32
The current "Flexible Inflation Targeting" framework in India requires the RBI to maintain CPI inflation at:
View Explanation
The RBI Act was amended in 2016 to provide a statutory basis for this framework. The target is 4% Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation, with an upper limit of 6% and a lower limit of 2%.
Question 33
Under the PMMY (Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana), the "Tarun" category covers loans ranging from:
View Explanation
Mudra loans have three categories: Shishu (up to ?50k), Kishore (?50k to ?5L), and Tarun (?5L to ?10L) for funding the non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises.
Question 34
The "Most Favored Nation" (MFN) principle under WTO implies:
View Explanation
MFN status means that if a country grants a trade advantage (like lower tariffs) to one WTO member, it must immediately grant the same advantage to all other WTO members. It prevents discrimination.
Question 35
What is a "Sovereign Green Bond"?
View Explanation
Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the government to mobilize resources for green infrastructure projects (like renewable energy, clean transport) that help reduce carbon intensity.
Question 36
Under the New Industrial Policy 1991, mandatory industrial licensing was abolished for all industries EXCEPT a short list. Which of the following still requires licensing?
View Explanation
Industrial licensing is kept only for 5 specific sectors related to security, strategic, and environmental concerns: Electronic Aerospace/Defence, Industrial Explosives, Hazardous Chemicals, Tobacco products, and Alcohol for consumption.
Question 37
Who acts as the Chairperson of the GST Council?
View Explanation
The GST Council, a constitutional body (Article 279A), is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. It includes the Union Minister of State for Finance and Finance Ministers of all States.
Question 38
Which expert committee recommended the poverty line calculation based on "Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure" (MPCE) in 2009?
View Explanation
The Suresh Tendulkar Committee moved away from calorie-based estimation to a broader consumption basket including health and education expenditure, adopting the MPCE method.
Question 39
The "Clean Note Policy" of RBI aims to:
View Explanation
The Clean Note Policy ensures the supply of good quality banknotes to the public and prevents writing on notes, enhancing their life and usability.
Question 40
Who regulates the "Nidhi Companies"?
View Explanation
Nidhi companies are governed by the MCA under the Companies Act. However, the RBI has powers to issue directions regarding their deposit acceptance activities to protect depositors.
Question 41
A country is said to have a "Trade Surplus" when:
View Explanation
Trade Balance specifically refers to the difference between exports and imports of physical goods. If Exports > Imports, it is a Surplus.
Question 42
PSL Certificates (PSLCs) can be traded on which platform?
View Explanation
PSLCs are traded on the RBI's CBS platform (e-Kuber). Banks buy/sell these certificates to meet their PSL targets without physically transferring the loans.
Question 43
Which of the following is NOT one of the Eight Core Industries in India?
View Explanation
The Eight Core Industries are: Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement, and Electricity. Textiles is not part of this group.
Question 44
The "SATH" program (Sustainable Action for Transforming Human capital) launched by NITI Aayog focuses on which two sectors?
View Explanation
SATH aims to identify and build three 'role model' states for the Health and Education sectors to improve service delivery.
Question 45
What does "NEER" stand for in the context of exchange rates?
View Explanation
NEER is the weighted average of bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home currency in terms of foreign currencies. REER (Real Effective Exchange Rate) adjusts NEER for inflation.
Question 46
In monetary aggregates, M3 is known as:
View Explanation
M3 (Broad Money) = M1 + Time Deposits with banking system. It captures the total money supply available in the economy. M1 is Narrow Money. M0 is Reserve Money.
Question 47
Which method of deficit financing has been discontinued in India since 1997 to enforce fiscal discipline?
View Explanation
The automatic monetization of the fiscal deficit through the issuance of ad-hoc Treasury Bills to the RBI was abolished to check inflation and ensure RBI autonomy. It was replaced by Ways and Means Advances (WMA).
Question 48
The term "Gig Economy" implies:
View Explanation
The Gig Economy involves temporary, flexible jobs where companies tend to hire independent contractors and freelancers instead of full-time employees (e.g., Uber, Zomato workers).
Question 49
Which Indian state has consistently ranked at the top in NITI Aayog’s SDG India Index (e.g., 2020-21 report)?
View Explanation
Kerala has consistently topped the SDG India Index due to its strong performance in health, education, and gender equality goals.
Question 50
BRBNMPL is a subsidiary of RBI. What is its full form?
View Explanation
BRBNMPL was established by RBI in 1995 to manage the currency note printing presses at Mysore and Salboni.
Question 51
SEBI has been mandated to ensure market integrity and transparency under the:
View Explanation
The **SEBI Act, 1992** provides the statutory framework for the establishment, powers, and functions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India. It explicitly mandates SEBI to protect the interests of investors in securities, promote the development of the securities market, and regulate it to ensure market integrity, transparency, and fair practices.
Question 52
Which of the following is NOT a tool of the RBI’s qualitative credit control?
View Explanation
The RBI uses two types of credit control: Quantitative and Qualitative. **Quantitative tools** (like **CRR, SLR, Repo Rate**) affect the overall *volume* of credit in the economy. **Qualitative (Selective) tools** (like Moral Suasion, Margin Requirements, Rationing) affect the *distribution* or direction of credit to specific sectors. Therefore, changing CRR/SLR is a quantitative, not qualitative, tool.
Question 53
The 3-Year Action Agenda of NITI Aayog is usually reviewed and updated:
View Explanation
The **3-Year Action Agenda** is a dynamic document designed to respond to changing economic conditions. Unlike the rigid Five-Year Plans, the Action Agenda is aligned with the government’s financial planning and is meant to be reviewed and updated **Annually** to ensure that the targets remain relevant and the implementation is on track with the annual budget allocations.
Question 54
Transfer payments (like old-age pensions or unemployment benefits) made by the government are classified as:
View Explanation
**Transfer Payments** involve the government giving money to individuals (like pensions, scholarships, subsidies) without receiving any goods or services in return. Since these payments do not create any physical or financial asset for the government and do not reduce any liability, they are strictly classified as **Revenue Expenditure**. They are essentially redistribution of income.
Question 55
The term "Hindu Growth Rate" is associated with the low growth in which period?
View Explanation
The term **"Hindu Rate of Growth"** was coined by economist Raj Krishna to describe the slow, sluggish, and stagnant annual growth rate of the Indian economy, which averaged around **3.5%** from the **1950s to the 1980s**. This period was characterized by the License Raj, inward-looking policies, and low capital formation, before the acceleration seen after the 1991 reforms.
Question 56
The largest component of the **Tertiary Sector** in terms of contribution to GDP is:
View Explanation
Within the Tertiary (Services) Sector, the sub-segment comprising **Financial, Real Estate, and Professional Services** is consistently the largest contributor to India's GDP. This segment reflects the high value-added activities of banking, insurance, IT services, and corporate real estate, which have grown faster than traditional services like trade or transport.
Question 57
Which organization is responsible for granting licenses to new commercial banks in India?
View Explanation
The **Reserve Bank of India (RBI)** is the sole authority vested with the power to grant licenses for commencing banking business in India. This power is derived from **Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949**. No company can carry on banking business in India without a license issued by the RBI, ensuring strict regulatory oversight.
Question 58
RBI uses the Reverse Repo Rate primarily to:
View Explanation
The **Reverse Repo Rate** is the interest rate at which the RBI absorbs liquidity from banks against the collateral of eligible government securities. When there is **excess liquidity** in the system (which could fuel inflation), the RBI increases the Reverse Repo Rate or conducts VRRR auctions to encourage banks to park their surplus funds with the central bank, thereby removing money from circulation.
Question 59
The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of:
View Explanation
The structure of **NITI Aayog** mandates that the **Prime Minister of India** serves as its **Chairperson**. This high-level leadership ensures that the think tank's strategic policy directions have the highest political backing and can effectively coordinate between the Central Ministries and State Governments. The NDC is effectively defunct, and MPC is chaired by the RBI Governor.
Question 60
The process of the government selling a part of its equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) is called:
View Explanation
**Disinvestment** is the specific term used for the government action of selling or liquidating its assets, usually shareholding in Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). When the government sells a minority stake (less than 50%) but retains control, it is disinvestment. If it sells a majority stake and transfers control to a private entity, it becomes **Strategic Disinvestment** or Privatization. All disinvestment proceeds are treated as Capital Receipts.
Question 61
The term "Service Sector" is synonymous with the:
View Explanation
Economic activities are broadly grouped into three sectors: Primary (Agriculture/Extraction), Secondary (Manufacturing/Construction), and **Tertiary (Services)**. The Tertiary sector involves the provision of intangible goods or services to consumers and businesses, such as banking, education, healthcare, tourism, and transport. It is currently the largest contributor to India's GDP.
Question 62
What was the immediate trigger for the introduction of the Liberalization (LPG) reforms in 1991?
View Explanation
The **1991 Economic Crisis** was triggered by a severe **Balance of Payments (BOP) crisis**. India’s foreign exchange reserves had fallen to critically low levels (barely enough to cover 3 weeks of imports), and the country was on the verge of defaulting on its external debt obligations. This crisis forced the government to approach the IMF for a bailout, which came with conditionality that led to the structural LPG reforms.
Question 63
Which regulator is responsible for promoting and ensuring the orderly growth of the insurance sector?
View Explanation
The **Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)** is the statutory body formed under the IRDA Act, 1999. Its preamble explicitly states its mission: "to protect the interests of the holders of insurance policies, to regulate, promote and ensure **orderly growth of the insurance industry**." It covers life, non-life, and health insurance sectors.
Question 64
The interest rate that the RBI charges on its long-term lending to banks, usually without collateral or for penal action, is the:
View Explanation
The **Bank Rate** is defined in Section 49 of the RBI Act as the "standard rate at which the Bank is prepared to buy or re-discount bills of exchange." In modern practice, it acts as a penal rate (aligned with the MSF rate) charged by the RBI on banks for shortfalls in meeting reserve requirements (CRR/SLR) or for long-term lending. Unlike Repo, it does not necessarily involve the sale/repurchase of securities.
Question 65
The NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission primarily to shift the planning process from being a central authority to a:
View Explanation
The fundamental shift from Planning Commission to **NITI Aayog** was to move away from the "command and control" approach of centralized planning to a **knowledge-based** approach. NITI Aayog acts as a **"Think Tank"** and a "Knowledge and Innovation Hub," providing research, data, and strategic advice to the Centre and States to foster competitive and cooperative federalism, rather than just allocating funds.
Question 66
Tax collected from a company's profits is known as:
View Explanation
**Corporate Tax** (or Corporation Tax) is a direct tax imposed on the net income or profit of corporate entities (companies). It is one of the largest sources of revenue for the Central Government in India. Unlike Income Tax (levied on individuals) or GST (levied on supply of goods/services), Corporate Tax specifically targets the earnings of businesses.
Question 67
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 gave a dominant role to the:
View Explanation
The **Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956** is often called the "Economic Constitution of India." It classified industries into three schedules, with Schedule A (17 industries) reserved exclusively for the State. This policy cemented the **Public Sector's (PSUs)** role as the prime mover of industrial development, relegating the private sector to a supplementary role, subject to strict licensing (License Raj).
Question 68
The calculation of the Human Development Index (HDI) considers which of the following component?
View Explanation
The **Human Development Index (HDI)**, published by the UNDP, measures development using a composite statistic of three dimensions: 1. **Health**: Measured by **Life Expectancy at Birth**. 2. **Education**: Measured by Mean Years of Schooling and Expected Years of Schooling. 3. **Standard of Living**: Measured by **Gross National Income (GNI) per capita** (PPP). Therefore, "All of the above" covers the key components.
Question 69
The legal basis for PFRDA’s regulatory powers is provided by the:
View Explanation
Although the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) was initially established through an executive order in 2003 to oversee the National Pension System (NPS), it received its full **statutory status** and legal powers only after the passage of the **PFRDA Act, 2013**. This Act empowers PFRDA to regulate, promote, and ensure the orderly growth of the National Pension System.
Question 70
The primary goal of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is to maintain inflation within the target band, with the flexibility to consider:
View Explanation
The amended RBI Act (2016) specifies the mandate of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). Its primary objective is to maintain **price stability** (controlling inflation within the 2-6% band). However, the Act explicitly states that this must be done **"while keeping in mind the objective of growth."** This dual mandate acknowledges that extremely tight monetary policy to control inflation could harm economic growth, so a balance must be struck.
Question 71
The NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission primarily to shift the planning process from being a central authority to a:
View Explanation
The **Planning Commission** operated as a central authority that dictated plans and funding. **NITI Aayog** was established to serve as a **Knowledge and Innovation Hub**. Its role is to accumulate best practices from across the world and within India, disseminate this knowledge to states, and provide technical expertise for policy formulation, thereby acting as a strategic resource center rather than a funding authority.
Question 72
The difference between the total expenditure and the sum of revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts is the:
View Explanation
This is the technical definition of **Fiscal Deficit**. Formula: Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-Debt Capital Receipts). Non-debt capital receipts include recovery of loans and disinvestment proceeds. The Fiscal Deficit represents the **total borrowing requirement** of the government from all sources to bridge the gap between its spending and its non-borrowed income.
Question 73
The concept of "Mixed Economy" ensures the presence of:
View Explanation
A **Mixed Economy** is an economic system that combines elements of both capitalism (market economy) and socialism (planned economy). It ensures the **coexistence of both the Private Sector and the Public Sector**. In India, this model was adopted to allow the government to control strategic industries (public welfare) while allowing private enterprise to drive other sectors (efficiency and innovation).
Question 74
India’s economy is often defined as "Developing" because it is characterized by:
View Explanation
Developing economies share certain common characteristics. India is classified as such primarily due to its **low per capita income** (compared to developed nations) and a continued heavy **dependence on agriculture** for employment (even though the service sector contributes more to GDP). Other features include high poverty levels, income inequality, and infrastructural challenges.
Question 75
Which regulator is responsible for promoting orderly and healthy growth of the Capital Market?
View Explanation
The **Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)** is the designated regulator for the **Capital Market** (Securities Market). Its statutory mandate includes three key objectives: to protect the interests of investors in securities, to promote the development of the securities market, and to regulate the securities market to ensure it functions in an orderly and healthy manner.
Question 76
The principal monetary policy rate that determines the cost of short-term money in the banking system is the:
View Explanation
The **Repo Rate** (Repurchase Rate) is the key policy rate signaled by the RBI. It is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for the short term against government securities. Being the benchmark policy rate, changes in the Repo Rate directly influence the cost of funds for banks, which in turn affects the lending and deposit rates for the entire economy. It anchors the money market interest rates.
Question 77
The three-year document detailing short-term policy priorities within the NITI Aayog framework is the:
View Explanation
Within the NITI Aayog's planning framework, the **3-Year Action Agenda** serves as the short-term planning document. It is designed to be actionable and details specific policy changes and programs to be implemented within a three-year timeframe. This timeframe allows for better alignment with the government’s expenditure planning and political cycle, offering more flexibility than the rigid Five-Year Plans.
Question 78
The term "Stock" in economic terms refers to a quantity measured:
View Explanation
In economics, variables are classified as Stock or Flow. A **Stock** variable is measured **at a specific point in time** (e.g., Wealth, Public Debt, Money Supply as on 31st March). In contrast, a **Flow** variable is measured **over a period of time** (e.g., GDP, Income, Deficit during the year 2023-24). Understanding this distinction is fundamental to fiscal and monetary analysis.
Question 79
The primary responsibility for Anti-Money Laundering (AML) enforcement related to illegal funds lies with the:
View Explanation
While the RBI sets KYC/AML guidelines and FIU-IND analyzes suspicious transactions, the **Directorate of Enforcement (ED)** is the specialized financial investigation agency under the Ministry of Finance. It has the primary statutory power to investigate and prosecute cases of Money Laundering under the **Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002**, including the attachment and confiscation of property derived from crime.
Question 80
When the RBI increases the Reverse Repo Rate, it typically indicates that the RBI intends to:
View Explanation
The **Reverse Repo Rate** is the rate banks earn when they deposit surplus funds with the RBI. By **increasing** this rate, the RBI makes it more attractive and profitable for banks to keep their money with the central bank rather than lending it out in the market. This action effectively **absorbs liquidity** from the banking system, reducing the money supply available for lending, which helps in controlling inflation.
Question 81
The introduction of the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) in 2022 effectively replaced which rate as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor?
View Explanation
The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) was operationalized in April 2022 to act as the floor of the LAF corridor, replacing the Fixed Rate Reverse Repo Rate. Unlike Reverse Repo, the SDF allows banks to park excess liquidity with the RBI without the need for the RBI to provide collateral (government securities) in return. This empowers the RBI to absorb unlimited liquidity without being constrained by its holding of government securities.
Question 82
Which of the following best describes "Tax Buoyancy"?
View Explanation
Tax Buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in the government's tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP. A buoyancy greater than 1 implies that tax revenues are growing faster than the GDP (economy), indicating a robust and efficient tax system. It accounts for both automatic growth in revenue due to economic growth and discretionary changes in tax policies.
Question 83
The "Production Linked Incentive" (PLI) Scheme was launched by the Government of India primarily to:
View Explanation
The PLI scheme offers financial incentives to companies based on the incremental sales of products manufactured in India. It aims to create global manufacturing champions in India across strategic sectors (like electronics, pharma, auto, textiles), create jobs, and reduce the reliance on imports, thereby strengthening the "Atmanirbhar Bharat" initiative.
Question 84
The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) was established to regulate financial services in:
View Explanation
IFSCA is a unified authority established to regulate all financial services in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in India. Prior to its establishment, domestic regulators like RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, and IRDAI regulated business in IFSCs. The first IFSC in India has been set up at GIFT City, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
Question 85
Under "Operation Twist," the Reserve Bank of India carries out which of the following actions simultaneously?
View Explanation
Operation Twist is a special Open Market Operation (OMO) where the RBI buys long-term government securities and simultaneously sells short-term securities. The goal is to lower long-term interest rates (yields) to spur investment and growth, while keeping short-term liquidity largely unchanged.
Question 86
The "Bombay Plan" drafted in 1944 by leading industrialists primarily advocated for:
View Explanation
Contrary to what one might expect from private industrialists (like JRD Tata and GD Birla), the Bombay Plan argued that the Indian economy could not grow without significant government intervention, protectionism, and a central planning authority to build infrastructure and heavy industries, as private capital was insufficient at that time.
Question 87
For Foreign Banks with less than 20 branches in India, the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target is:
View Explanation
Foreign banks with < 20 branches have a total PSL target of 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC). However, they are treated differently regarding sub-targets; they can fulfill up to 32% of this target through Export Credit, which is not the case for domestic banks where export credit limits are much lower/specific.
Question 88
Which of the following correctly defines the "Brownfield Investment" in infrastructure?
View Explanation
Brownfield projects involve purchasing or leasing existing production facilities/infrastructure to launch a new production activity. This contrasts with Greenfield investments, which involve building new facilities from the ground up. Brownfield is often faster but may come with legacy issues.
Question 89
What is the implication of a high "Crowding Out" effect caused by high fiscal deficit?
View Explanation
When the government borrows heavily from the market to fund its deficit, it competes with the private sector for limited funds. This increased demand for loanable funds drives up interest rates (cost of borrowing), making it expensive for private companies to invest, thus "crowding them out" of the market.
Question 90
NITI Aayog’s "Composite Water Management Index" (CWMI) is a tool to:
View Explanation
The CWMI creates a sense of cooperative and competitive federalism among states. By ranking states on various water management parameters (like irrigation, restoration of water bodies, etc.), it encourages them to improve their water security practices based on data-backed performance.
Question 91
Identify the correct statement regarding "Cess" and "Surcharge".
View Explanation
A Cess (e.g., Health and Education Cess) is levied for a specific predetermined purpose and cannot be used for anything else. A Surcharge is an additional charge on tax for general revenue purposes. Crucially, proceeds from both Cess and Surcharge are NOT shared with state governments (they are not part of the divisible pool).
Question 92
Which of the following constitutes the "Legal Tender" in India?
View Explanation
Legal Tender is money that cannot be refused in settlement of a debt. Currency notes and coins are legal tender. Cheques are "fiduciary money" because they can be refused (e.g., if bounces) and represent a claim rather than cash itself.
Question 93
Which committee recommended the establishment of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in 1975?
View Explanation
The Regional Rural Banks were established under the provisions of an Ordinance passed in September 1975 and the RRB Act 1976, based on the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group, to improve rural credit delivery.
Question 94
Which term describes the phenomenon where a country’s working-age population grows larger than the dependent population, creating a potential for economic growth?
View Explanation
Demographic Dividend is the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (14 and younger, and 65 and older). India is currently passing through this phase.
Question 95
The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) was set up as a:
View Explanation
NaBFID was established by an Act of Parliament in 2021 as a specialized Development Financial Institution (DFI) to support the country's infrastructure sector, bridging the gap for long-term non-recourse finance.
Question 96
Which initiative focuses on creating "Smart Cities" to drive economic growth and improve quality of life?
View Explanation
Launched in 2015, the Smart Cities Mission aims to promote cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens, a clean and sustainable environment, and application of 'Smart' Solutions.
Question 97
Which curve describes the inverse relationship between rates of unemployment and corresponding rates of inflation?
View Explanation
The Phillips Curve suggests that lower unemployment is associated with higher inflation (trade-off). When employment is high (unemployment low), demand rises, pushing up prices.
Question 98
RBI acts as a "Lender of Last Resort" to whom?
View Explanation
As the Lender of Last Resort, RBI provides financial assistance to commercial banks when they face temporary liquidity crises and have exhausted all other sources. It also provides Ways and Means Advances (WMA) to State Governments.
Question 99
Which article of the Constitution provides for the establishment of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council?
View Explanation
The 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 inserted Article 279A, empowering the President to constitute the GST Council, which is the governing body for GST implementation.
Question 100
The "Export Promotion Capital Goods" (EPCG) scheme allows import of capital goods at:
View Explanation
The EPCG scheme allows exporters to import capital goods (machinery) at zero customs duty, provided they fulfill an export obligation equivalent to 6 times the duty saved within 6 years.
Question 101
Which grouping is often referred to as the "Bretton Woods Twins"?
View Explanation
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (IBRD) were both created at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944, hence the name.
Question 102
The 1991 reforms marked a shift from a fixed exchange rate regime to:
View Explanation
The reforms introduced the LERMS (Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System) in 1992, moving towards a market-determined exchange rate where demand and supply decide the Rupee's value.
Question 103
What is "Gross Fixed Capital Formation" (GFCF) a proxy for in economic terms?
View Explanation
GFCF measures the value of new or existing fixed assets (infrastructure, machinery, etc.) acquired by the government and private sector. It is the standard indicator for Investment in the GDP calculation.
Question 104
The "Base III" norms in banking are primarily concerned with:
View Explanation
Basel III is a global regulatory framework that mandates banks to maintain higher capital (CAR), leverage ratios, and liquidity (LCR/NSFR) to withstand financial stress and prevent systemic failure.
Question 105
What is the "Ways and Means Advances" (WMA) limit?
View Explanation
WMA is a temporary liquidity support given by the RBI to the government (Central & State) to bridge short-term gaps between their revenue receipts and expenditures. It must be repaid within 90 days.
Question 106
The "Udyam Registration" portal is meant for the registration of:
View Explanation
Udyam Registration is the new, simplified, online, and paperless process for registering MSMEs in India, replacing the Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum (UAM).
Question 107
Which deficit indicates the true borrowing requirement of the government excluding the burden of past debt interest?
View Explanation
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments. It shows how much the government needs to borrow to meet its current year's expenses, excluding the obligation of interest on old loans.
Question 108
The "ESG" framework in corporate finance stands for:
View Explanation
ESG is a framework used to assess the sustainability and ethical impact of an investment in a company, focusing on Environmental impact, Social responsibility, and Corporate Governance.
Question 109
Which of the following is an example of "Supply-side Inflation"?
View Explanation
Supply-side (or Cost-Push) inflation occurs when the cost of production increases (e.g., raw material shocks like oil) or supply is constrained, forcing prices up, independent of demand.
Question 110
Which of the following is considered "Narrow Money" in India?
View Explanation
M1 is known as Narrow Money because it includes the most liquid assets: Currency with public + Demand Deposits with banking system + Other deposits with RBI.
Question 111
Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between Microeconomics and Macroeconomics?
View Explanation
Microeconomics focuses on the behavior of individual agents (consumers, firms) and price determination in specific markets. Macroeconomics analyzes the economy-wide phenomena such as total output (GDP), unemployment, and inflation.
Question 112
If the demand for a product is "Perfectly Inelastic," an increase in the supply of the product will lead to:
View Explanation
Perfectly inelastic demand means the demand curve is a vertical line (quantity demanded does not change with price). If supply increases (supply curve shifts right), the intersection point moves down along the vertical demand line, resulting in a lower price but the exact same quantity.
Question 113
The "Money Multiplier" in an economy is inversely related to:
View Explanation
The Money Multiplier indicates the maximum amount of money the banking system generates with each unit of excess reserves. It decreases if people hold more cash (higher Currency Deposit Ratio) or if banks hold more reserves (higher Reserve Deposit Ratio), as both leakages reduce the bank's ability to lend and create money.
Question 114
According to Keynes' Liquidity Preference Theory, the demand for money is motivated by three motives. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
View Explanation
Keynes identified three motives for holding cash: Transaction (for daily needs), Precautionary (for emergencies), and Speculative (to take advantage of future interest rate movements). "Inflationary Motive" is not a component of this theory.
Question 115
During the "Recession" phase of a business cycle, which of the following phenomena is typically observed?
View Explanation
In a recession, aggregate demand falls. Producers are initially unable to cut production fast enough, leading to an involuntary accumulation of inventories (unsold stock), which eventually forces them to cut production and employment.
Question 116
The GDP Deflator is a measure of price inflation calculated as:
View Explanation
The GDP Deflator measures the level of prices of all new, domestically produced, final goods and services in an economy. It compares Nominal GDP (current prices) with Real GDP (base year prices).
Question 117
The short-run Phillips Curve suggests a trade-off between:
View Explanation
The Phillips Curve postulates an inverse relationship: lower unemployment is associated with higher inflation (due to wage pressures and demand), and higher unemployment is associated with lower inflation.
Question 118
In economics, "Opportunity Cost" refers to:
View Explanation
Opportunity cost is a fundamental concept representing the benefits an individual, investor, or business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.
Question 119
Which of the following deficits indicates the government's borrowing requirement exclusively for its current year expenditure, excluding the burden of past debt interest?
View Explanation
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments. It shows the gap between the government's spending and receipts for the current year alone, removing the legacy cost of past borrowings.
Question 120
"Core Inflation" differs from "Headline Inflation" because Core Inflation excludes:
View Explanation
Core Inflation measures the long-term trend in the price level. It excludes items with volatile prices, specifically Food and Fuel , to give a clearer picture of underlying inflation trends.
Question 121
In which market structure do firms sell products that are similar but not identical (differentiated products), giving them some control over price?
View Explanation
In Monopolistic Competition (e.g., toothpaste, soaps), many sellers offer differentiated products. This differentiation allows them to act as price makers to a limited extent, unlike Perfect Competition where products are identical.
Question 122
A "Giffen Good" is a special type of inferior good that violates the Law of Demand because:
View Explanation
For a Giffen good (e.g., staple food like bread/rice for the very poor), the income effect of a price rise is so strong (consumers feel poorer and cut back on expensive foods like meat) that they end up buying MORE of the staple Giffen good, despite the price rise.
Question 123
The "Velocity of Money" refers to:
View Explanation
Velocity is the rate at which money circulates in the economy. A higher velocity implies a more active economy where the same money is used for multiple transactions.
Question 124
In the IS-LM model, the "IS curve" represents equilibrium in which market?
View Explanation
The IS (Investment-Saving) curve shows combinations of interest rates and output where the goods market is in equilibrium (Investment = Saving). The LM curve represents the Money Market.
Question 125
Which of the following must be added to GDP to arrive at Gross National Product (GNP)?
View Explanation
GDP measures production within borders. GNP measures production by nationals, regardless of location. Therefore, GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (Income earned by residents abroad minus income earned by foreigners domestically).
Question 126
To counter a "Boom" phase that is causing high inflation, the central bank is likely to adopt:
View Explanation
In a boom, demand outstrips supply, causing inflation. A "Dear Money Policy" (tight monetary policy) raises interest rates to discourage borrowing and spending, thereby cooling down the economy.
Question 127
Which of the following is NOT a Revenue Receipt?
View Explanation
Recovery of Loans is a Capital Receipt because it reduces the government's financial assets (the outstanding loan). The others are Revenue Receipts (Taxes, Dividends, Fees) as they are recurring and create no liability/asset change.
Question 128
In the Fisher's Quantity Theory of Money equation MV = PT, what does 'V' stand for?
View Explanation
M = Money Supply, V = Velocity of Circulation, P = Price Level, T = Volume of Transactions. The theory states that Money Supply * Velocity = Total Value of Transactions.
Question 129
Any point lying inside the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) curve indicates:
View Explanation
Points on the PPF curve represent full efficiency. Points outside are unattainable with current resources. Points inside indicate that resources are idle or inefficiently used.
Question 130
If Nominal GDP increases by 8% and the Inflation Rate is 5%, what is the approximate Real GDP growth?
View Explanation
Real GDP Growth ˜ Nominal GDP Growth - Inflation Rate. (8% - 5% = 3%). Real GDP represents purchasing power growth.
Question 131
A "Shift" in the Demand Curve (as opposed to movement along the curve) is caused by changes in:
View Explanation
A change in the price of the good causes movement *along* the curve. A change in non-price determinants (Income, Tastes, Price of substitutes) shifts the entire curve left or right.
Question 132
According to the Classical Theory of Interest, the interest rate is determined by the intersection of:
View Explanation
The Classical Theory posits that interest is the reward for saving (abstinence) and the price paid for the use of capital (investment). It is a real phenomenon determined by real factors: Saving (Supply) and Investment (Demand).
Question 133
Which component is NOT part of M1 (Narrow Money)?
View Explanation
M1 = Currency + Demand Deposits + Other Deposits with RBI. Time Deposits (FDs) are not liquid enough for M1 and are included in M3 (Broad Money).
Question 134
According to Keynesian economics, the primary cause of business cycles (booms and busts) is fluctuations in:
View Explanation
Keynes argued that fluctuations in Aggregate Demand, particularly Investment demand driven by "animal spirits" (business confidence), are the main drivers of the business cycle.
Question 135
"Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost" is also known as:
View Explanation
NDP at Factor Cost represents the total income earned by factors of production within the domestic territory. NNP at Factor Cost is called "National Income".
Question 136
Which act mandates the government to place the "Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement" in Parliament?
View Explanation
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act requires the government to present three policy statements: Medium-term Fiscal Policy, Fiscal Policy Strategy, and Macro-economic Framework.
Question 137
The "Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility" states that as a consumer consumes more units of a good:
View Explanation
While total utility may increase, the *additional* satisfaction gained from consuming each subsequent unit declines. This explains the downward sloping demand curve.
Question 138
If the Cross Elasticity of Demand between two goods is Positive, it indicates that the goods are:
View Explanation
Positive cross elasticity means if the price of Good A rises, the demand for Good B rises. This happens with substitutes (people switch from expensive Tea to cheaper Coffee). For complements, it is negative.
Question 139
Which of the following is a cause of "Cost-Push Inflation"?
View Explanation
Cost-Push inflation arises from the supply side when production costs increase, forcing firms to raise prices to maintain margins. The others are Demand-Pull factors.
Question 140
The "Real Interest Rate" is approximately calculated as:
View Explanation
Real Interest Rate represents the true purchasing power gained from an investment. It subtracts the erosion of value caused by inflation from the nominal rate (Fisher Equation approximation).
Question 141
To calculate "GDP at Factor Cost" from "GDP at Market Prices", which adjustment is necessary?
View Explanation
Market prices include indirect taxes (which increase price) and exclude subsidies (which lower price). To get back to the actual cost of production (Factor Cost), one must remove the tax component (Subtract Indirect Taxes) and add back the government support (Add Subsidies).
Question 142
Which of the following statements regarding WPI (Wholesale Price Index) and CPI (Consumer Price Index) in India is TRUE?
View Explanation
WPI measures inflation at the wholesale level and tracks only goods. CPI measures inflation at the retail level and includes both goods and services (like medical care, education, housing). RBI adopted CPI as the key measure for inflation targeting in 2014.
Question 143
Which of the following is considered a "Leading Indicator" of a business cycle (predicting future economic activity)?
View Explanation
Leading indicators change *before* the economy as a whole changes. "New orders for capital goods" signal future production activity. Unemployment is a lagging indicator (changes after the economy turns), and CPI is often a lagging or coincident indicator.
Question 144
High Powered Money (Reserve Money or M0) consists of:
View Explanation
High Powered Money (H or M0) is the base for money creation. It includes all currency issued by the central bank (held by public and banks) plus the reserves banks keep with the RBI.
Question 145
A "Liquidity Trap" is a situation where:
View Explanation
In a Liquidity Trap, prevailing interest rates are low and savings rates are high, making monetary policy ineffective. Investors expect interest rates to rise in the future (bond prices to fall), so they hoard cash to avoid capital losses.
Question 146
Which of the following acts as an "Automatic Stabilizer" in the fiscal system?
View Explanation
Automatic stabilizers cushion the economy without direct government intervention. In a boom, progressive taxes rise (cooling demand). In a recession, taxes fall and benefits rise (boosting demand), automatically countering the cycle.
Question 147
The primary objective of RBI's "Operation Twist" is to:
View Explanation
Operation Twist involves buying long-term securities (raising their price, lowering yield) and selling short-term securities. This flattens the yield curve and reduces the cost of long-term borrowing for investment.
Question 148
The concave shape of the Production Possibility Curve (PPC) implies:
View Explanation
As you produce more of Good A, you have to give up increasingly larger amounts of Good B because resources are not perfectly adaptable. This increasing trade-off creates the concave shape.
Question 149
If the government monetizes its deficit by borrowing directly from the RBI, it typically leads to:
View Explanation
Direct monetization involves printing new money (High Powered Money) to fund government spending. This increases the monetary base and money supply, often fueling demand-pull inflation.
Question 150
If the Cross Price Elasticity of Demand between Product X and Product Y is Negative , then X and Y are:
View Explanation
A negative cross elasticity means that if the price of X rises, the demand for Y falls. This happens with complementary goods because they are consumed together (e.g., if the price of Petrol rises, demand for Cars may fall).
Question 151
Why are "Transfer Payments" (like scholarships, old-age pensions) excluded from the calculation of National Income?
View Explanation
National Income accounts for production activity. Transfer payments are merely a redistribution of existing income from one group (taxpayers) to another (beneficiaries) without any corresponding economic output.
Question 152
Stagflation is a challenging economic condition characterized by the simultaneous occurrence of:
View Explanation
Stagflation contradicts the standard Phillips Curve trade-off. It involves a stagnant economy (high unemployment) coexisting with rising prices (high inflation), often caused by supply shocks.
Question 153
The "Keynesian Multiplier" effect explains how an initial increase in investment leads to:
View Explanation
One person's spending becomes another's income, who then spends a part of it, creating a chain reaction. Thus, an initial injection of spending raises National Income by a multiple of that amount.
Question 154
If the Reserve Ratio (r) is 10%, what is the theoretical maximum Money Multiplier?
View Explanation
The simple Money Multiplier is calculated as 1/r. If r = 10% (or 0.1), then Multiplier = 1 / 0.1 = 10. This means an initial deposit can create 10 times the money supply.
Question 155
The Loanable Funds Theory considers the interest rate to be determined by:
View Explanation
This theory (Neo-Classical) improved upon the Classical theory by including monetary factors like bank credit and hoarding alongside real factors like saving and investment.
Question 156
If the Primary Deficit is zero, it implies that:
View Explanation
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments. If PD = 0, then Fiscal Deficit = Interest Payments. This means new borrowing is used solely to service old debt, not for new expenditure.
Question 157
In the RBI's policy corridor, the spread between the Repo Rate and the MSF Rate is usually:
View Explanation
Currently, the RBI maintains a corridor width where the MSF (ceiling) is 25 bps above the Repo Rate. (Note: This spread can change based on RBI policy, but standard practice is a fixed spread).
Question 158
The Law of Variable Proportions applies to production in the:
View Explanation
The law states that as you add more variable inputs (labor) to a fixed input (land), marginal product will eventually decline. This distinction of fixed vs variable inputs defines the Short Run.
Question 159
Gender Budgeting refers to:
View Explanation
It is not a separate budget but a tool to translate gender commitments into budgetary commitments by inspecting inflows/outflows through a gender lens.
Question 160
Consumer Surplus is defined as:
View Explanation
If a consumer is willing to pay ?100 for a product but buys it for ?80, the Consumer Surplus is ?20. It represents the net benefit to consumers.
Question 161
Green GDP adjusts the standard GDP figure by deducting:
View Explanation
Green GDP accounts for the environmental consequences of economic growth. It subtracts the value of natural capital loss (pollution, resource depletion) from traditional GDP.
Question 162
Why is the GDP Deflator considered a broader measure of inflation than CPI?
View Explanation
CPI tracks a fixed basket of consumer goods. GDP Deflator tracks price changes in ALL goods and services produced in the economy (investment goods, government services, exports), making it broader.
Question 163
A "Depression" differs from a "Recession" in terms of:
View Explanation
A depression is an extreme form of recession. It lasts longer (years vs months) and involves a much sharper decline in GDP (e.g., >10%), massive unemployment, and deflation.
Question 164
Which factor is likely to INCREASE the "Velocity of Money"?
View Explanation
If people receive income more frequently (weekly vs monthly), they hold less idle cash and spend money faster, increasing velocity. Saving or hoarding money decreases velocity.
Question 165
In a Liquidity Trap, monetary policy becomes ineffective because:
View Explanation
In a liquidity trap, people are willing to hold any amount of money supplied by the central bank (demand curve is horizontal/flat) because opportunity costs are near zero. Injecting more money doesn't lower rates further or stimulate spending.
Question 166
The revised FRBM path (post-pandemic) aims to bring the Fiscal Deficit down to what level by 2025-26?
View Explanation
Due to the pandemic stimulus, the original target of 3% was relaxed. The Union Budget 2021-22 announced a glide path to reduce fiscal deficit to below 4.5% by 2025-26.
Question 167
Which of the following is a "Qualitative" (Selective) credit control method used by RBI?
View Explanation
Qualitative tools target specific sectors. By increasing the margin (down payment) required for loans against shares or commodities, RBI selectively restricts credit to those sectors without affecting the whole economy. The others are Quantitative tools.
Question 168
"Internal Economies of Scale" arise due to:
View Explanation
Internal economies are cost advantages that a specific firm reaps as it grows larger (e.g., purchasing bulk raw materials cheaper, specialized machinery). External economies benefit the whole industry.
Question 169
The Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the:
View Explanation
Under Article 267, the Contingency Fund is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President. It is used for unforeseen expenditure (like disasters) pending parliamentary authorization.
Question 170
What happens to equilibrium price and quantity if Demand increases and Supply remains constant?
View Explanation
An increase in demand shifts the demand curve to the right. With a fixed upward-sloping supply curve, this leads to a higher equilibrium price and a higher equilibrium quantity.
Question 171
Which of the following transactions is included in the calculation of National Income in India?
View Explanation
National Income includes the value of goods and services produced. Imputed rent is the estimated rent a house owner would pay to live in their own house if they were renting it. It represents the value of housing services produced. Transfer payments, second-hand sales, and non-economic activities (housewife services) are excluded.
Question 172
The "Money Multiplier" will decrease if:
View Explanation
Money Multiplier (m) is inversely related to the Currency Deposit Ratio (c) and Reserve Deposit Ratio (r). Formula: m = (1+c)/(c+r). If people hold more cash (higher CDR) instead of depositing it in banks, the banks' ability to create credit reduces, lowering the multiplier.
Question 173
Which index is used by the RBI as the primary gauge for inflation targeting?
View Explanation
Since the adoption of the Flexible Inflation Targeting framework in 2016 (based on Urjit Patel Committee recommendations), the RBI targets Headline Inflation measured by the CPI-Combined (Rural + Urban).
Question 174
According to the IS-LM model, an expansionary fiscal policy (increase in Govt spending) will typically lead to:
View Explanation
Expansionary fiscal policy shifts the IS curve to the right. This increases output (Income). However, higher income increases money demand, which pushes up interest rates (assuming money supply is fixed). Thus, both Y and r increase.
Question 175
The "Accelerator Principle" in business cycles states that:
View Explanation
The Accelerator theory suggests that net investment is a function of the growth in output. If demand for consumer goods rises, firms need more machines (capital) to produce them, leading to a more than proportionate rise in investment demand.
Question 176
Which of the following expenditures is "Charged" upon the Consolidated Fund of India (Non-votable by Parliament)?
View Explanation
Expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 112(3)) include emoluments of the President, Judges of SC/HC, CAG, and debt service charges (interest + sinking fund) of the government. These are not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Question 177
If a good is "Non-excludable" and "Non-rivalrous", it is best classified as a:
View Explanation
Public Goods (like national defense, street lights) are non-excludable (you can't stop people from using it) and non-rivalrous (one person's use doesn't reduce availability for others).
Question 178
The "Veblen Effect" refers to a situation where:
View Explanation
Veblen goods are luxury goods for which demand increases as price increases, because the higher price confers status (Conspicuous Consumption). This is an exception to the Law of Demand.
Question 179
If Real GDP is ?1000 and Money Supply is ?500, and the Price Level is 2, what is the Velocity of Money (V) according to the equation MV = PY?
View Explanation
Equation: MV = PY. Here M=500, P=2, Y=1000 (Real GDP). So, 500 * V = 2 * 1000. 500V = 2000. V = 4. Velocity is 4.
Question 180
Which of the following actions by the RBI will REDUCE the money supply?
View Explanation
Increasing CRR means banks must park more funds with RBI, leaving less money available for lending to the public, thereby contracting the money supply.
Question 181
The Laffer Curve illustrates the relationship between:
View Explanation
The Laffer Curve shows that as tax rates increase, tax revenue increases up to an optimal point, after which further increases in tax rates actually decrease total revenue due to disincentives to work/produce.
Question 182
Net National Product (NNP) at Market Price minus Net Indirect Taxes equals:
View Explanation
Market Price - Net Indirect Taxes = Factor Cost. Therefore, NNP(MP) - NIT = NNP(FC), which is technically defined as National Income.
Question 183
The "Kitchin Cycle" in business cycles refers to short cycles (3-5 years) primarily driven by:
View Explanation
Joseph Kitchin identified short business cycles of about 40 months driven by lags in information and decision making regarding inventory levels.
Question 184
Which inflation index is used for calculating Dearness Allowance (DA) for government employees?
View Explanation
DA for central government employees is calculated based on the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW), compiled by the Labour Bureau.
Question 185
According to the Fisher Effect, if the nominal interest rate is 8% and the expected inflation rate is 3%, the real interest rate is:
View Explanation
Fisher Equation: Real Interest Rate ˜ Nominal Interest Rate - Inflation Rate. 8% - 3% = 5%.
Question 186
Statement I: Positive Economics deals with "what is". Statement II: Normative Economics deals with "what ought to be".
View Explanation
Positive economics relies on facts and data (descriptive). Normative economics involves value judgments and opinions about economic fairness and goals (prescriptive). Both definitions are correct.
Question 187
A "Vote on Account" allows the government to:
View Explanation
Vote on Account (Article 116) enables the government to meet essential expenses (like salaries) for the first few months of the new fiscal year until the full Appropriation Bill is passed.
Question 188
Which of the following will cause a movement along the supply curve?
View Explanation
Movement along the supply curve (expansion or contraction) is caused ONLY by a change in the price of the good itself. All other factors shift the curve.
Question 189
Personal Disposable Income (PDI) is equal to:
View Explanation
PDI is the income actually available to individuals for consumption or saving. It is obtained by subtracting personal direct taxes (like income tax) and fees/fines paid to the government from Personal Income.
Question 190
In a booming economy, the Velocity of Money usually:
View Explanation
During a boom, optimism encourages spending and investment. Money changes hands faster as people buy more goods and services, increasing the velocity of circulation.
Question 191
Which of the following is a "Capital Receipt" but "Non-Debt Creating"?
View Explanation
Borrowings create debt. Disinvestment (selling government assets) is a capital receipt because it reduces assets, but it does not create any future repayment obligation, hence it is non-debt creating.
Question 192
The Hicks-Hansen synthesis is another name for which economic model?
View Explanation
Sir John Hicks and Alvin Hansen developed the IS-LM model to summarize Keynesian economics, integrating the real (Goods) and monetary (Money) markets.
Question 193
Schumpeter’s Theory of Business Cycles attributes fluctuations primarily to:
View Explanation
Joseph Schumpeter argued that business cycles are caused by waves of innovation (creative destruction). Entrepreneurs introduce new products/processes, causing booms, followed by adjustments.
Question 194
If the supply of a product decreases while demand remains constant, the equilibrium price will:
View Explanation
A decrease in supply shifts the supply curve to the left. With constant demand, this creates a shortage at the old price, pushing the equilibrium price up and quantity down.
Question 195
The "Product Method" of calculating National Income is also known as:
View Explanation
The Product Method sums up the Gross Value Added (GVA) by all sectors of the economy to avoid double counting of intermediate goods.
Question 196
Which term describes a situation where inflation is rising, but at a slower rate than before?
View Explanation
Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation (e.g., from 6% to 4%). Prices are still rising, but slower. Deflation is negative inflation (prices falling).
Question 197
Under Article 110 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can be introduced:
View Explanation
A Money Bill deals with taxes, borrowing, etc., and can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha with the President's recommendation. Rajya Sabha has limited powers over it.
Question 198
If demand is "Unitary Elastic" (Ed = 1), a 10% increase in price will lead to:
View Explanation
Unitary elasticity means the percentage change in quantity demanded is exactly equal to the percentage change in price.
Question 199
Broad Money (M3) includes M1 plus:
View Explanation
M3 = M1 (Currency + Demand Deposits) + Time Deposits (Fixed/Recurring Deposits) with banks. It is the most common measure of money supply.
Question 200
Which theory states that long-term interest rates reflect the market's expectation of future short-term interest rates?
View Explanation
Expectations Theory explains the term structure of interest rates (Yield Curve), positing that long-term rates are an average of current and expected future short-term rates.
Question 201
Which factor of production is unique because its supply is fixed and completely inelastic?
View Explanation
Land is considered a primary factor of production with a fixed supply. Unlike capital or labor, which can be increased or decreased based on demand and investment, the total physical availability of land is geographically limited and cannot be significantly expanded, making its supply curve perfectly vertical (inelastic).
Question 202
If both Demand and Supply increase simultaneously in the same proportion, what will be the effect on the Equilibrium Price and Quantity?
View Explanation
When both demand and supply curves shift to the right by the same magnitude, the upward pressure on price from increased demand is exactly offset by the downward pressure on price from increased supply. However, both shifts contribute to an increase in the quantity traded, resulting in a higher equilibrium quantity at the same price.
Question 203
Which monetary aggregate is considered the most relevant for monetary policy formulation because it captures the total liquidity available in the banking system?
View Explanation
M3, or Broad Money, includes Currency with the public, Demand Deposits, and Time Deposits with banks. It is the most comprehensive measure of the money supply that is liquid enough to impact economic activity. The RBI primarily tracks M3 growth to decide on liquidity management and interest rates.
Question 204
In Keynes' Liquidity Preference Theory, the "Speculative Demand for Money" is:
View Explanation
Speculative demand arises from the desire to hold cash to take advantage of future changes in bond prices. When interest rates are high, bond prices are low, so people buy bonds (low cash holding). When rates are low, bond prices are high, so people sell bonds and hold cash (high cash holding), anticipating rates to rise. Thus, it has an inverse relationship.
Question 205
Which of the following characterizes the "Recovery" phase of a business cycle?
View Explanation
The Recovery phase starts after the Trough. It is marked by a gradual return of confidence. Firms begin to replace worn-out machinery (investment kicks in), employment starts to pick up slowly, and banking lending begins to ease, leading to a slow rise in aggregate demand.
Question 206
Which lag in monetary policy refers to the time it takes for the central bank to recognize that there is a shock to the economy?
View Explanation
Policy lags are critical in economics. "Recognition Lag" is the time delay between an economic shock (like a sudden drop in demand) and the moment policymakers identify it from the data. This delay can sometimes lead to policy actions being taken too late, potentially destabilizing the economy further.
Question 207
Under the original FRBM Act, the government was aiming to reduce the Fiscal Deficit to what percent of GDP?
View Explanation
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, originally targeted limiting the Fiscal Deficit to 3% of GDP by 2008. While this target has been amended and relaxed multiple times due to economic crises, the 3% figure remains the benchmark for long-term fiscal prudence.
Question 208
The concept of "Green GDP" aims to correct traditional GDP by:
View Explanation
Standard GDP ignores the environmental costs of production. Green GDP deducts the cost of pollution, depletion of natural resources (like oil or forests), and degradation of ecosystems from the GDP figure. This provides a more sustainable measure of economic welfare.
Question 209
In the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), which major group has the highest weightage?
View Explanation
WPI tracks the price of goods at the wholesale level. The "Manufactured Products" group (including chemicals, metals, textiles, food products) holds the highest weight (approx 64%), followed by Primary Articles (approx 22%) and Fuel & Power (approx 13%). Services are not included in WPI.
Question 210
Which of the following statements is an example of "Normative Economics"?
View Explanation
Normative economics expresses values, judgments, or opinions about what "should" or "ought" to happen. It involves subjective statements that cannot be proven true or false. The other options are Positive Economics, which state factual or testable relationships.
Question 211
A binding "Price Ceiling" imposed by the government (e.g., on rent or medicines) typically leads to:
View Explanation
A Price Ceiling sets a maximum legal price below the equilibrium price. At this lower price, quantity demanded increases (people want more cheap goods) while quantity supplied decreases (producers make less profit), resulting in excess demand or a shortage .
Question 212
Which liquidity aggregate (L1) includes "M3 + All Deposits with the Post Office Savings Banks"?
View Explanation
The RBI publishes Liquidity Aggregates in addition to Monetary Aggregates. L1 is defined as New Broad Money (NM3) plus All Deposits with the Post Office Savings Banks (excluding National Savings Certificates). It provides a wider measure of liquidity than M3.
Question 213
The "Loanable Funds Theory" improves upon the Classical Theory by incorporating:
View Explanation
The Classical theory viewed interest purely as a real phenomenon (savings vs investment). The Neo-Classical Loanable Funds theory recognized that the supply of loanable funds also comes from monetary sources like new money created by banks (credit) and dis-hoarding of cash, not just real savings.
Question 214
How does a global recession typically impact the Indian economy?
View Explanation
A global recession reduces the income and demand in foreign countries. This leads to a fall in demand for Indian exports (software, gems, textiles). Additionally, global investors become risk-averse, often pulling capital (FPI) out of emerging markets like India, affecting the stock market and rupee value.
Question 215
The primary aim of RBI's "Operation Twist" is to flatten the yield curve by:
View Explanation
By buying long-term bonds, the RBI increases their price and lowers their yield (interest rate), making long-term borrowing cheaper for infrastructure and housing. By selling short-term bonds, it keeps short-term rates steady or higher. This simultaneous action twists the yield curve.
Question 216
Which of the following is a component of the Capital Budget of the Government of India?
View Explanation
The Budget is divided into Revenue and Capital. Capital Budget deals with assets and liabilities. Loans given to States create an asset (receivable) for the Central Government, so they fall under Capital Expenditure. Interest, salaries, and subsidies are recurring expenses (Revenue Expenditure).
Question 217
Real Per Capita Income will definitely rise if:
View Explanation
Per Capita Income = Total Income / Total Population. For the average person to be better off in real terms, the total economic pie (Real GDP) must expand at a rate higher than the number of people sharing it (Population growth).
Question 218
The policy dilemma in tackling "Stagflation" is that:
View Explanation
Stagflation involves both high inflation and high unemployment (stagnation). Typical tools to fight inflation (raising rates) slow down the economy, worsening unemployment. Tools to fight unemployment (lowering rates, stimulus) can worsen inflation. This trade-off makes it the hardest condition to manage.
Question 219
A "Production Function" defines the technical relationship between:
View Explanation
The Production Function (Q = f(K, L...)) mathematically shows the maximum amount of output that can be produced from a given set of physical inputs (like capital and labor), assuming a certain level of technology.
Question 220
A "Perfectly Elastic Supply" curve is represented graphically as:
View Explanation
Perfect elasticity means that at a specific price, suppliers are willing to supply an infinite amount. Even a tiny drop in price reduces supply to zero. This is depicted by a horizontal line.
Question 221
During a period of "Hyperinflation," the Velocity of Money tends to:
View Explanation
In hyperinflation, money loses value almost hourly. People try to get rid of cash immediately by buying goods, leading to a massive increase in the velocity of circulation, which further fuels inflation.
Question 222
The "Fisher Effect" posits a one-to-one relationship between:
View Explanation
The Fisher Effect states that the Real Interest Rate is independent of monetary measures. Therefore, if expected inflation rises by 1%, the Nominal Interest Rate will also rise by 1% to keep the Real Rate constant.
Question 223
The interaction between the "Multiplier" and the "Accelerator" is often used to explain:
View Explanation
Paul Samuelson utilized the interaction between the Keynesian Multiplier (consumption effect) and the Accelerator (investment effect) to build a model that explains the oscillatory nature (cycles) of economic activity.
Question 224
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of India is required to publish the minutes of its meeting on the:
View Explanation
To ensure transparency and accountability, the RBI Act mandates that the MPC must publish the minutes of the proceedings, including the voting record of each member, on the 14th day after the meeting.
Question 225
Excessive "Deficit Financing" (printing money to fund deficit) is most likely to lead to:
View Explanation
Deficit financing increases the money supply in the hands of the public without a corresponding increase in goods supply. This excess money chases limited goods, leading to a rise in aggregate demand and causing Demand-Pull Inflation.
Question 226
GDP at "Purchasing Power Parity" (PPP) helps in comparing:
View Explanation
Nominal GDP can be misleading due to exchange rates. PPP adjusts GDP to reflect what that money can actually buy in each country (e.g., a haircut costs less in India than in USA). It provides a better comparison of real living standards.
Question 227
The term "Skewflation" refers to a situation where:
View Explanation
Skewflation is a skewed inflation. For example, food prices might be skyrocketing (high inflation) while prices of electronics or real estate might be stagnant or falling. It indicates sectoral imbalances.
Question 228
The central problem of "For whom to produce" in an economy deals with:
View Explanation
"For whom to produce" is about distribution. It determines who gets to consume the goods produced, which depends on how income is distributed (wages, rent, interest, profit) among the factors of production.
Question 229
Which of the following is an EXCEPTION to the Law of Demand (i.e., Demand curve slopes upwards)?
View Explanation
The Law of Demand states price and quantity are inversely related. Veblen goods (status symbols like diamonds) violate this because people buy MORE of them as their price rises to show off wealth.
Question 230
If the public decides to hold more currency in hand rather than depositing it in banks (Increase in Currency-Deposit Ratio), the Money Multiplier will:
View Explanation
Banks create money by lending out deposits. If people hold cash (leakage), less money enters the banking system as deposits. This reduces the banks' ability to lend and create credit, thereby lowering the value of the Money Multiplier.
Question 231
Which of the following statements regarding the "Unorganized Financial Market" in India is TRUE? I. It includes Money Lenders and Indigenous Bankers. II. It is fully regulated by the RBI. III. Its interest rates are typically lower than the organized sector.
View Explanation
The Unorganized Financial Market comprises Money Lenders, Indigenous Bankers, and Nidhi companies. Unlike the organized sector (Banks, NBFCs), it is largely unregulated by the RBI (Statement II is false). Furthermore, interest rates in this sector are typically much higher, not lower, than the organized sector due to higher risk and lack of collateral (Statement III is false).
Question 232
To be classified as a "Scheduled Bank" under the RBI Act, 1934, a bank must satisfy which condition?
View Explanation
A Scheduled Bank is one included in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. To qualify, it must have a paid-up capital and reserves of not less than ?5 Lakhs and satisfy the RBI that its affairs are not conducted in a manner detrimental to the interests of its depositors.
Question 233
Which statement about the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) is INCORRECT?
View Explanation
NaBFID is a specialized DFI established to support long-term infrastructure projects. Unlike commercial banks, DFIs generally do not accept demand deposits (Savings/Current accounts) from the public; they raise funds through bonds, government grants, and multilateral institutions.
Question 234
Under the RBI's Scale Based Regulation (SBR) for NBFCs, the "Top Layer" typically consists of:
View Explanation
The SBR framework has four layers: Base, Middle, Upper, and Top. The Top Layer remains empty by default and is populated only if the RBI identifies specific NBFCs from the Upper Layer that pose extreme systemic risk and require tighter supervision.
Question 235
Which of the following money market instruments is issued at a discount to face value and redeemed at par? I. Treasury Bills. II. Commercial Papers. III. Certificate of Deposits.
View Explanation
Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Commercial Papers (CP), and Certificates of Deposit (CD) are all "Zero Coupon" instruments. They do not pay periodic interest; instead, they are issued at a discount to their face value, and the profit is the difference between the redemption value and the issue price.
Question 236
Initial Public Offering (IPO) and Follow-on Public Offering (FPO) are functions of the:
View Explanation
The Primary Market is where new securities are issued for the first time (New Issue Market). IPOs (first sale) and FPOs (subsequent sale by existing companies) allow companies to raise fresh capital directly from investors.
Question 237
What is the minimum paid-up voting equity capital required for setting up a Small Finance Bank (SFB)?
View Explanation
As per RBI guidelines (revised), the minimum paid-up voting equity capital for Small Finance Banks is ?200 crore. (For Universal Banks, it is ?500 crore, later revised to ?1000 crore for new licenses).
Question 238
The Narasimham Committee-I (1991) recommended the reduction of SLR and CRR to:
View Explanation
High SLR and CRR meant a large portion of bank funds were locked up in low-yielding government securities or idle cash (pre-emption of funds). Narasimham-I recommended reducing these ratios to release funds for productive commercial lending, thereby improving bank profitability and efficiency.
Question 239
As of recent amendments, the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit in the Indian Insurance sector under the automatic route is:
View Explanation
The Insurance Amendment Act, 2021 increased the FDI limit in the insurance sector from 49% to 74% under the automatic route, subject to Indian management control safeguards.
Question 240
An NBFC-Factor is a company whose financial assets in the factoring business constitute at least what percentage of its total assets?
View Explanation
To be registered as an NBFC-Factor, a company must have at least 50% of its total assets in the factoring business, and its income derived from factoring must not be less than 50% of its gross income.
Question 241
In the Call/Notice Money Market, funds are borrowed for a period of:
View Explanation
"Call Money" refers to lending/borrowing for 1 day (overnight). "Notice Money" refers to lending/borrowing for a period of 2 to 14 days. "Term Money" is for 15 days to 1 year.
Question 242
Which of the following activities is PROHIBITED for Payments Banks?
View Explanation
Payments Banks are designed to provide small savings accounts and payments/remittance services. They are strictly prohibited from undertaking lending activities or issuing credit cards to avoid credit risk.
Question 243
SIDBI acts as the principal financial institution for the promotion and development of:
View Explanation
SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) acts as the apex regulatory and financing body for the MSME sector in India.
Question 244
Which of the following instruments is regulated by SEBI?
View Explanation
SEBI regulates the securities market, which includes corporate bonds, shares, and mutual funds. G-Secs are primarily regulated by RBI. Currency is RBI's domain. Bank FDs are regulated by RBI.
Question 245
Which of the following entities is NOT regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) even though it is an NBFC?
View Explanation
Chit Fund companies are regulated by the State Governments under the Chit Funds Act, 1982. Housing Finance Companies are now regulated by RBI (transferred from NHB).
Question 246
In a Mutual Fund structure, who is responsible for managing the investment portfolio and making investment decisions?
View Explanation
The AMC is the operational arm appointed by the Trustees to manage the funds. Fund Managers within the AMC make the buying/selling decisions.
Question 247
Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are subject to "Dual Control" by which two entities?
View Explanation
UCBs operate under dual regulation: Banking functions are regulated by the RBI (Banking Regulation Act), while management/incorporation issues are regulated by the RCS of the State (or Central RCS for multi-state banks).
Question 248
The mega-merger of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in 2019-20 reduced the number of PSBs to:
View Explanation
Following the amalgamation of 10 PSBs into 4 anchor banks, the total number of PSBs in India came down to 12, creating larger and stronger banks.
Question 249
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of:
View Explanation
CP is an unsecured Promissory Note issued by corporates, primary dealers, and FIs to raise short-term funds.
Question 250
Which DFI provides "Buyer’s Credit" to foreign governments and agencies to enable them to import goods from India?
View Explanation
Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) extends Lines of Credit (LOC) and Buyer's Credit to overseas entities to promote Indian exports.
Question 251
The primary function of NSDL (National Securities Depository Limited) and CDSL is to:
View Explanation
NSDL and CDSL are Depositories. They hold securities (shares, debentures) in electronic form to facilitate paperless trading and settlement.
Question 252
GIC Re (General Insurance Corporation of India) operates primarily as a:
View Explanation
GIC Re is the "National Reinsurer". It provides reinsurance support to direct general insurance companies in India and abroad, helping them spread risk.
Question 253
A "Core Investment Company" (CIC) is an NBFC that holds not less than what percentage of its net assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies?
View Explanation
A CIC is a specialized NBFC whose business is acquisition of shares and securities. It must hold at least 90% of its net assets in the form of investment in group companies, with at least 60% in equity shares.
Question 254
Which of the following banks is classified as a Domestic Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB) by RBI (as of 2023)?
View Explanation
RBI classifies SBI, HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank as D-SIBs. These are banks considered "Too Big To Fail" and are subject to higher capital conservation buffer requirements.
Question 255
What does "TREPS" stand for in the money market context?
View Explanation
TREPS enables tri-party repo borrowing and lending, facilitated by a central counterparty (CCIL). It allows participants to borrow against government securities collateral with a third party mediating the transaction.
Question 256
In a "Financial Lease", the risk and rewards of ownership are essentially transferred to the:
View Explanation
A Financial Lease is a long-term lease where the lessee bears the risks (maintenance, obsolescence) and enjoys the rewards of the asset, almost like ownership, though legal title remains with the lessor.
Question 257
Which pillar of the Basel II/III framework deals with "Supervisory Review Process"?
View Explanation
Basel Norms have 3 pillars: Pillar 1 (Minimum Capital Requirements), Pillar 2 (Supervisory Review Process - ICAAP), and Pillar 3 (Market Discipline - Disclosures).
Question 258
Which stage of Venture Capital financing is provided to companies that have a product prototype but haven't started commercial sales yet?
View Explanation
Seed capital is for the idea stage. Start-up financing supports product development and initial marketing. Expansion is for scaling up. Bridge is for pre-IPO.
Question 259
The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) is managed by:
View Explanation
RIDF was set up in NABARD. Banks that fail to meet their Priority Sector Lending targets contribute to this fund, which NABARD uses to finance rural infrastructure projects by state governments.
Question 260
What is the "Green Shoe Option" in an IPO?
View Explanation
A Green Shoe Option (Over-allotment Option) allows the issuer to authorize underwriters to sell additional shares (usually up to 15%) if demand is high, helping to stabilize the post-listing price.
Question 261
The "Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021" launched by RBI adopts which approach for grievance redressal?
View Explanation
The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 integrates the three existing schemes (Banking Ombudsman, NBFC Ombudsman, and Digital Transactions Ombudsman) into a single centralized scheme, adopting the "One Nation One Ombudsman" approach to make the grievance redressal mechanism simpler and more responsive.
Question 262
Which of the following tenors is NOT a standard maturity period for Treasury Bills (T-Bills) issued by the Government of India?
View Explanation
Currently, the Government of India issues Treasury Bills in three standard maturities: 91-day, 182-day, and 364-day. There is no standard 270-day T-Bill.
Question 263
In the RBI's Scale Based Regulation for NBFCs, the "Middle Layer" (NBFC-ML) comprises all Deposit taking NBFCs and Non-Deposit taking NBFCs with asset size of:
View Explanation
The Middle Layer includes all Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFC-Ds) irrespective of asset size, and Non-Deposit taking NBFCs with asset size of ?1000 Crore and above.
Question 264
The "Net Asset Value" (NAV) of a Mutual Fund scheme represents:
View Explanation
NAV is the per-unit price of the mutual fund. It is calculated as (Total Market Value of Assets + Cash - Liabilities) / Total Number of Units Outstanding.
Question 265
Which entity owns and operates the "Unified Payments Interface" (UPI) system in India?
View Explanation
NPCI, an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, developed and operates the UPI platform.
Question 266
In a "Future Contract", the obligation to buy or sell the asset at a specified price on a specified date is:
View Explanation
Unlike "Options" where the buyer has the right but not the obligation, "Futures" impose a binding obligation on both parties to fulfill the contract on the maturity date.
Question 267
The National Housing Bank (NHB) is fully owned by:
View Explanation
NHB was originally a subsidiary of RBI. However, the Government of India acquired the entire stake of RBI in NHB in 2019, making it a 100% govt-owned entity.
Question 268
The "Real Effective Exchange Rate" (REER) is the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) adjusted for:
View Explanation
REER takes the NEER (weighted average of nominal exchange rates) and adjusts it for relative inflation rates. It is a better indicator of a country's trade competitiveness.
Question 269
Which of the following was the first Credit Rating Agency established in India?
View Explanation
Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited (CRISIL) was incorporated in 1987 and started operations in 1988, becoming India's first credit rating agency.
Question 270
The key difference between "Leasing" and "Hire Purchase" is that in Hire Purchase:
View Explanation
In Hire Purchase, the hirer has the option to purchase the asset at the end of the term. Ownership passes only when the final installment is paid. In Lease, ownership typically remains with the lessor.
Question 271
Forfaiting is a financing mechanism primarily used for:
View Explanation
Forfaiting involves the purchase of export receivables (like bills of exchange) by a forfaiter on a "without recourse" basis. It is typically used for medium to long-term export financing.
Question 272
An "Angel Investor" is typically:
View Explanation
Angel Investors invest their personal funds into early-stage companies (startups) that have high growth potential but high risk, often providing mentorship as well.
Question 273
Under the National Pension System (NPS), "Tier I Account" refers to:
View Explanation
Tier I is the primary pension account which is restrictive in nature regarding withdrawals (corpus is locked till retirement). Tier II is a voluntary savings facility with unrestricted withdrawals.
Question 274
The term "Bancassurance" implies:
View Explanation
Bancassurance is a partnership between a bank and an insurance company, where the bank uses its distribution channels to sell insurance products.
Question 275
Which of the following is a core function of a "Merchant Banker"?
View Explanation
Merchant Bankers mainly facilitate capital raising for companies by managing IPOs, underwriting shares, and providing consultancy on mergers and acquisitions.
Question 276
The equity capital of a Regional Rural Bank (RRB) is held by the Central Government, State Government, and Sponsor Bank in the ratio of:
View Explanation
The ownership structure of RRBs is fixed: Central Government (50%), Sponsor Bank (35%), and State Government (15%).
Question 277
Which of the following statements is true about "Certificate of Deposit" (CD)?
View Explanation
CD is a negotiable money market instrument issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks and select FIs. The minimum maturity for a CD issued by banks is 7 days, not 1 day. It is unsecured.
Question 278
In the context of IPO applications, what does "ASBA" stand for?
View Explanation
ASBA is a process where the IPO application money remains blocked in the investor's bank account and is debited only if shares are allotted.
Question 279
Infrastructure Debt Funds (IDF-NBFCs) are permitted to raise funds primarily through:
View Explanation
IDF-NBFCs are setup to facilitate long-term debt into infrastructure sectors. They raise resources through issue of bonds of minimum 5-year maturity.
Question 280
Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) primarily allow investors to invest in:
View Explanation
REITs pool money to own and operate income-generating real estate. The regulations require at least 80% of the value of the REIT assets to be invested in completed and rent-generating properties.
Question 281
The SARFAESI Act, 2002 empowers banks to enforce security interest without the intervention of the court. However, it does NOT apply to:
View Explanation
Section 31(i) of the SARFAESI Act explicitly excludes "any security interest created in agricultural land" from its purview to protect farmers.
Question 282
The TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform is specifically designed to facilitate financing for:
View Explanation
TReDS is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing / discounting of trade receivables of MSMEs through multiple financiers, helping them manage working capital.
Question 283
The "Regulatory Sandbox" framework introduced by RBI is aimed at:
View Explanation
A Regulatory Sandbox allows FinTech companies to test innovative products with real customers under regulatory supervision but with some relaxed norms for a limited period.
Question 284
In a "Unit Linked Insurance Plan" (ULIP), the investment risk is borne by:
View Explanation
ULIPs combine insurance and investment. The premiums are invested in market-linked funds (equity/debt), and the value of the corpus fluctuates with market performance. Thus, the investment risk lies with the policyholder.
Question 285
Local Area Banks (LABs) were set up to bridge the gap in credit availability in:
View Explanation
LABs were established as low-cost structures to mobilize rural savings and provide credit in a limited area of operation (typically 3 contiguous districts).
Question 286
The "National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited" (NARCL), often referred to as the "Bad Bank", was primarily set up to:
View Explanation
NARCL acquires stressed assets from commercial banks, cleaning up their balance sheets. The assets are then managed/resolved by the IDRCL (India Debt Resolution Company Ltd).
Question 287
Who among the following can operate as both lenders and borrowers in the Call Money Market?
View Explanation
Banks and Primary Dealers act as both borrowers and lenders in the Call/Notice money market. Co-operative banks are also permitted. Corporates are not permitted.
Question 288
India currently follows which settlement cycle for equity spot markets (as initiated in phases from 2023)?
View Explanation
India moved from T+2 to T+1 settlement cycle (Trade date + 1 day) for equities, making it one of the fastest settlement systems globally. SEBI is also testing optional T+0.
Question 289
An "Operating Lease" is usually characterized by:
View Explanation
An Operating Lease is like a rental agreement (e.g., renting a car for a week). It is short-term, doesn't cover the full asset cost, and the lessor handles maintenance. Financial Lease is the opposite.
Question 290
Which symbol typically represents the highest safety/creditworthiness rating by agencies like CRISIL or ICRA?
View Explanation
"AAA" ratings indicate the highest degree of safety regarding timely servicing of financial obligations and carry the lowest credit risk.
Question 291
In the context of Merchant Banking, "Hard Underwriting" refers to an agreement where:
View Explanation
Hard Underwriting involves a firm commitment by the underwriter to subscribe to a certain number of shares even before the public issue opens, providing certainty to the issuer.
Question 292
A "Put Option" gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to:
View Explanation
A Put Option allows the holder to sell the asset at the strike price. They will exercise this option if the market price falls below the strike price, profiting from the decline.
Question 293
In "Non-Recourse Factoring", if the debtor (customer) defaults on payment, the loss is borne by:
View Explanation
In non-recourse factoring, the Factor assumes the credit risk. If the debtor fails to pay due to insolvency, the Factor cannot claim the money back from the seller (client).
Question 294
Which of the following is the most preferred "Exit Route" for a Venture Capitalist to realize maximum returns?
View Explanation
An IPO allows the VC firm to sell its shares to the public at a market valuation, often yielding significantly higher returns compared to other exit strategies like buybacks or secondary sales.
Question 295
A "Forex Swap" transaction involves:
View Explanation
A typical forex swap consists of a spot transaction and a simultaneous forward transaction in the opposite direction. It is used to manage liquidity or hedge risk without open currency exposure.
Question 296
Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are required to extend what percentage of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the Priority Sector?
View Explanation
Unlike universal banks (target 40%), SFBs have a higher mandate to serve the underserved, hence their Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target is set at 75% of ANBC.
Question 297
Funds raised through "Green Bonds" must be utilized exclusively for:
View Explanation
Green Bonds are debt instruments specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and environmental projects like renewable energy, clean transportation, and water management.
Question 298
The "Total Expense Ratio" (TER) of a Mutual Fund scheme is:
View Explanation
TER covers investment management fees, registrar fees, trustee fees, audit fees, and marketing expenses. SEBI sets limits on the maximum TER that can be charged.
Question 299
What is the primary role of a "Third Party Administrator" (TPA) in the Health Insurance sector?
View Explanation
TPAs act as intermediaries between the insurance company and the policyholder/hospital. They handle the administrative aspects of claims processing, network hospital management, and cashless approvals.
Question 300
The "Atal Pension Yojana" (APY) provides a guaranteed minimum monthly pension to subscribers ranging from:
View Explanation
APY provides five slabs of guaranteed minimum pension: ?1000, ?2000, ?3000, ?4000, and ?5000 per month, depending on the contribution amount and age of entry.
Question 301
If a customer is not satisfied with the decision of the Banking Ombudsman, they can appeal to the:
View Explanation
Under the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, the Appellate Authority is the Executive Director in charge of the Consumer Education and Protection Department of RBI (Note: Earlier it was Deputy Governor, recently designated to ED level, but often referred to as Appellate Authority within RBI).
Question 302
Can a complaint against a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) be filed under the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?
View Explanation
The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme covers NBFCs (both deposit-taking and non-deposit taking) having customer interface and asset size of ?100 crore or more.
Question 303
Which of the following restrictions applies to Payment Banks regarding their investment of deposits?
View Explanation
To ensure safety and liquidity, Payment Banks are mandated to invest at least 75% of their demand deposit balances in Government Securities with maturity up to one year.
Question 304
The "Liquidity Coverage Ratio" (LCR) under Basel III norms ensures that banks have enough high-quality liquid assets to survive an acute stress scenario lasting for:
View Explanation
LCR promotes short-term resilience by ensuring banks have sufficient High-Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA) to survive a significant stress scenario lasting 30 calendar days.
Question 305
Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), the standard timeline for the completion of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is:
View Explanation
The IBC mandates a time-bound resolution process. The initial deadline is 180 days from the date of admission, extendable by 90 days. The Supreme Court has emphasized a mandatory outer limit of 330 days including litigation time.
Question 306
Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) acquire NPAs from banks. What is the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) requirement for an ARC to commence business (revised as per RBI 2022 guidelines)?
View Explanation
RBI raised the minimum Net Owned Fund requirement for ARCs from ?100 crore to ?300 crore to ensure they have sufficient financial strength to acquire distressed assets.
Question 307
Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), banks are required to maintain records of transactions for a period of how many years from the date of cessation of the transaction?
View Explanation
Reporting entities (banks) must maintain records of transactions and KYC information for a period of 5 years from the date of transaction or the end of the business relationship.
Question 308
Credit Information Companies (CICs) like CIBIL provide a credit score to individuals. What is the typical range of the CIBIL TransUnion Score?
View Explanation
The CIBIL score ranges from 300 to 900. A score closer to 900 indicates high creditworthiness and lower risk for the lender.
Question 309
Regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs), which of the following statements about taxation is correct?
View Explanation
For SGBs, the interest (2.5% p.a.) is taxable. However, capital gains arising on redemption of the bond (held till maturity) are exempt from tax for individual investors. No TDS is deducted on interest.
Question 310
"Masala Bonds" are defined as:
View Explanation
Masala Bonds are debt instruments issued outside India but denominated in Indian Rupees rather than foreign currency. This shifts the currency risk from the issuer to the investor.
Question 311
Under SEBI AIF Regulations, "Category I AIFs" include funds that:
View Explanation
Category I AIFs are those which invest in sectors which the government or regulators consider as socially or economically desirable (Venture Capital Funds, SME Funds, Social Venture Funds, Infrastructure Funds).
Question 312
To ensure regular income for investors, SEBI regulations mandate that REITs must distribute not less than what percentage of their Net Distributable Cash Flows (NDCF) to unit holders?
View Explanation
REITs are required to distribute at least 90% of their Net Distributable Cash Flows to investors at least once every six months, ensuring they function as income-generating vehicles.
Question 313
Units located in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) enjoy a 100% tax holiday on corporate income for a block of:
View Explanation
To attract global financial institutions, the government provides a 100% income tax holiday for 10 consecutive years out of a block of 15 years for units in IFSC.
Question 314
Under Priority Sector Lending norms, what is the specific target for "Weaker Sections" for Domestic Commercial Banks?
View Explanation
The target for Advances to Weaker Sections (which includes small and marginal farmers, SC/ST, beneficiaries of govt schemes) has been increased to 12% of ANBC (Adjusted Net Bank Credit).
Question 315
The "Lead Bank Scheme" was introduced by RBI in 1969 to:
View Explanation
The Lead Bank Scheme assigns a specific bank in each district the responsibility of surveying credit needs, developing credit plans, and coordinating with other banks and government agencies to ensure banking development in that district.
Question 316
The "Service Area Approach" (SAA) launched in 1989 was aimed at:
View Explanation
Under SAA, each rural and semi-urban bank branch was assigned a specific service area comprising 15 to 25 villages for planned and orderly development of that area.
Question 317
In a "Corporate Bond Repo" transaction, the collateral used is:
View Explanation
Unlike standard Repo where G-Secs are used, Corporate Bond Repo allows borrowing funds by pledging Corporate Bonds. This aims to deepen the corporate bond market.
Question 318
An NBFC is classified as a "Systemically Important Non-Deposit taking NBFC" (NBFC-ND-SI) if its asset size is:
View Explanation
NBFC-ND-SI are those non-deposit taking NBFCs with an asset size of ?500 crore and above. They are subject to stricter prudential norms compared to smaller NBFCs.
Question 319
According to SEBI categorization, a "Large Cap Fund" must invest at least what percentage of its total assets in large-cap companies?
View Explanation
SEBI mandates that a Large Cap Fund must invest a minimum of 80% of its total assets in equity and equity-related instruments of large-cap companies (top 100 companies by market capitalization).
Question 320
In a lease agreement, the term "Residual Value" refers to:
View Explanation
Residual value is the expected fair market value of the leased asset at the conclusion of the lease period. In a financial lease, the lessee often guarantees this value.
Question 321
Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with which mandatory requirement for banks?
View Explanation
Section 24 mandates that every banking company shall maintain in India, liquid assets (cash, gold, or unencumbered approved securities) valued at a price not exceeding the current market price, an amount not less than a prescribed percentage of its total Demand and Time Liabilities.
Question 322
Under the "Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021", what is the maximum compensation amount that the Ombudsman can award for loss suffered by the complainant?
View Explanation
The Ombudsman has the power to award compensation up to ?20 Lakh for any loss suffered by the complainant due to the act or omission of the Regulated Entity. Additionally, up to ?1 Lakh can be awarded for mental harassment.
Question 323
In the "Book Building" process of an IPO, the "Cut-off Price" refers to:
View Explanation
The Cut-off Price is finalized by the issuer in consultation with the Merchant Bankers based on the bids received. Investors bidding at the "Cut-off" agree to pay whatever final price is discovered.
Question 324
A "Commercial Bill" becomes a negotiable money market instrument only when it is:
View Explanation
While a trade bill acts as evidence of debt, it becomes a liquid money market instrument only when a commercial bank "Accepts" it, guaranteeing payment. It can then be discounted.
Question 325
The Principle of "Subrogation" in insurance implies that:
View Explanation
Subrogation allows the insurance company to claim legal rights against third parties that caused the loss, preventing the insured from collecting twice (once from insurer, once from the negligent party).
Question 326
What is the primary operational difference between an ETF (Exchange Traded Fund) and an Index Fund?
View Explanation
Both track an index (passive), but ETFs trade like stocks with real-time pricing, whereas Index Fund units are created/redeemed by the AMC at the day's closing NAV.
Question 327
In the NPS "Active Choice" investment option, what is the maximum cap on equity exposure (Scheme E) for subscribers up to the age of 50?
View Explanation
Under Active Choice, a subscriber can allocate up to 75% of their funds in Equity (Asset Class E). However, this limit tapers down as the subscriber's age increases beyond 50.
Question 328
The Narasimham Committee-II (1998) specifically recommended the introduction of which concept to strengthen the banking system?
View Explanation
The committee suggested "Narrow Banking" for banks with high NPAs, aiming to restrict their activities to risk-free investments (like G-Secs) to ensure depositors' safety.
Question 329
If the Forward Rate of a currency is higher than its Spot Rate, the currency is said to be trading at a:
View Explanation
When Forward Rate > Spot Rate, the currency is at a Premium. When Forward Rate < Spot Rate, it is at a Discount.
Question 330
Which portal operated by SIDBI acts as a platform for facilitating the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs?
View Explanation
Receivables Exchange of India Ltd (RXIL) is a joint venture promoted by SIDBI and NSE to operate the TReDS platform.
Question 331
What is a key functional difference between a Small Finance Bank (SFB) and a Payment Bank?
View Explanation
Both can accept deposits (Payment Banks have a limit). The critical difference is that SFBs can undertake lending activities, whereas Payment Banks are strictly prohibited from lending to minimize risk.
Question 332
Unlike Factoring which usually covers short-term receivables, Forfaiting usually deals with:
View Explanation
Forfaiting is a specialized form of export finance involving the purchase of medium to long-term export receivables (deferred payment obligations) on a non-recourse basis.
Question 333
Under Accounting Standard 19 (AS-19), a lease is classified as a "Finance Lease" if:
View Explanation
AS-19 criteria for Finance Lease include: transfer of ownership, option to purchase at bargain price, lease term covering major economic life, and PV of MLP essentially equaling fair value.
Question 334
Which statement correctly distinguishes an "Angel Investor" from a "Venture Capitalist"?
View Explanation
Angel investors are typically high-net-worth individuals investing their own money. Venture Capitalists are professional firms that invest money pooled from institutional investors (LPs).
Question 335
The Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is chaired by:
View Explanation
While the FSDC is chaired by the Finance Minister, its Sub-Committee, which handles operational coordination, is chaired by the RBI Governor.
Question 336
"Sovereign Credit Rating" assesses the creditworthiness of:
View Explanation
Sovereign ratings give investors insight into the level of risk associated with investing in the debt of a particular country (national government).
Question 337
In India's "Bad Bank" structure, the "India Debt Resolution Company Ltd." (IDRCL) acts as the:
View Explanation
NARCL acts as the ARC (buying bad loans), while IDRCL acts as the AMC (managing and selling the assets).
Question 338
Companies listed on the "SME Exchange" platform are required to migrate to the Main Board if their paid-up capital exceeds:
View Explanation
SME Platform listing is for companies with post-issue paid-up capital up to ?25 Crore. If it exceeds this limit, they must migrate to the Main Board.
Question 339
The interest rate in the Call Money Market is determined by:
View Explanation
While RBI sets policy rates (Repo), the Call Money Rate is a market-determined rate based on the demand for and supply of overnight funds among banks.
Question 340
The Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) replaced which system for pricing loans?
View Explanation
MCLR replaced the Base Rate system in April 2016 to ensure better transmission of RBI rate cuts to borrowers. (Note: EBLR has now replaced MCLR for new retail/MSME loans).
Question 341
Are Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) required to maintain Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)?
View Explanation
To strengthen liquidity risk management, RBI mandated LCR for larger NBFCs (Asset size = ?5000 Cr) and all deposit-taking NBFCs.
Question 342
Micro-Insurance products are designed to provide coverage to:
View Explanation
Micro-insurance aims to protect low-income people against specific perils in exchange for regular premium payments proportionate to the likelihood and cost of the risk involved.
Question 343
In the SEBI "Risk-o-meter" for Mutual Funds, which level represents the highest risk?
View Explanation
SEBI introduced "Very High" as the sixth category in the Risk-o-meter (replacing the earlier 5 categories) to alert investors about schemes with the highest risk profile.
Question 344
In the NPS architecture, the "Annuity Service Provider" (ASP) is responsible for:
View Explanation
ASPs are IRDAI regulated insurance companies empanelled by PFRDA to provide annuity services (pension payments) to subscribers upon their exit/retirement from NPS.
Question 345
A "Non-Deliverable Forward" (NDF) is a forex derivative contract traded:
View Explanation
NDF markets (like in Singapore or London for INR) allow trading in currencies that have restricted convertibility. Settlement is done in a convertible currency (usually USD), with no delivery of the underlying domestic currency.
Question 346
NaBFID can raise funds in the form of loans or otherwise from:
View Explanation
Being a DFI for infrastructure, NaBFID has diverse funding sources, including government grants, loans from RBI/banks, and borrowings from international multilateral institutions.
Question 347
The "Mission Indradhanush" for banking reforms launched in 2015 aimed to revamp:
View Explanation
Mission Indradhanush was a 7-pronged plan to resolve issues of PSBs, including Appointments, Banks Board Bureau, Capitalization, De-stressing, Empowerment, Framework of Accountability, and Governance Reforms.
Question 348
RBI incentivizes Foreign Banks to enter India through the "Wholly Owned Subsidiary" (WOS) mode because:
View Explanation
The WOS model ensures that the Indian operations are a separate legal entity with its own capital and board, protecting it if the parent bank abroad fails (Ring-fencing).
Question 349
Who are the three key participants in the TReDS platform?
View Explanation
TReDS brings together MSME sellers (to upload invoices), Buyers (to accept invoices), and Financiers (to bid and provide funding against invoices).
Question 350
A "Leveraged Lease" involves three parties: the Lessee, the Lessor, and the:
View Explanation
In a Leveraged Lease, the lessor borrows a large portion of the asset cost from a lender (non-recourse debt). The lessor provides only a small equity portion but enjoys tax benefits of ownership.
Question 351
According to the "Efficient Market Hypothesis" (EMH), which of the following statements is TRUE?
View Explanation
The Efficient Market Hypothesis asserts that financial markets are "informationally efficient". Since prices already reflect all known information, no investor can have an edge, and "beating the market" consistently is impossible except through luck.
Question 352
Borrowing under the "Notice Money Market" refers to funds borrowed for a period of:
View Explanation
The Call/Notice/Term Money market is classified by tenor: "Call Money" is for 1 day, "Notice Money" is for 2-14 days, and "Term Money" is for 15 days up to 1 year.
Question 353
In the context of Primary Market issues (IPOs), what does the "ASBA" mechanism ensure?
View Explanation
Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) ensures that funds are debited from the investor's account only when shares are actually allotted, allowing them to earn interest on the blocked amount in the interim.
Question 354
In India, if the exchange rate is quoted as "USD 1 = INR 82.50", this is an example of a:
View Explanation
A Direct Quote expresses the price of one unit of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency (e.g., how many Rupees for 1 Dollar). India follows the Direct Quote system. An Indirect Quote would be INR 1 = USD 0.012.
Question 355
Which of the following is NOT a function typically performed by a Merchant Banker?
View Explanation
Merchant Bankers are capital market intermediaries regulated by SEBI. Unlike commercial banks, they are not allowed to carry out core banking functions like accepting demand deposits from the general public.
Question 356
Which of the following is a key difference between a "Forward Contract" and a "Futures Contract"?
View Explanation
Futures are standardized contracts traded on exchanges with a central counterparty (clearinghouse), virtually eliminating counterparty risk. Forwards are customized, Over-the-Counter (OTC) contracts between two parties, carrying higher counterparty risk.
Question 357
In a Factoring arrangement, the "Factor" provides prepayment to the client up to what percentage of the invoice value (typically)?
View Explanation
Ideally, the Factor advances about 80-90% of the invoice value immediately to the client. The balance (minus charges) is paid when the customer (debtor) makes the full payment.
Question 358
"Mezzanine Financing" in the context of Venture Capital refers to:
View Explanation
Mezzanine Financing is a late-stage financing round, typically used by companies that are already generating revenue and looking to scale up significantly before going public (IPO). It often combines debt and equity features.
Question 359
Which of the following is a characteristic of a "Financial Lease"?
View Explanation
A Financial Lease is a non-cancellable contractual commitment where the lessee uses the asset for most of its economic life, bearing all risks and rewards, effectively acting like the owner.
Question 360
Which of the following is NOT a SEBI-registered Credit Rating Agency (CRA) in India?
View Explanation
CIBIL (TransUnion CIBIL) is a Credit Information Company (CIC) that maintains credit records of individuals/companies, not a Credit Rating Agency (CRA) that rates debt instruments. CRAs evaluate the creditworthiness of issuers of debt securities.
Question 361
A Mutual Fund scheme that invests in a mix of equity and debt instruments to balance risk and return is called a:
View Explanation
Hybrid Funds invest in more than one asset class (usually Equity and Debt) to achieve a balance between growth (from equity) and income/stability (from debt).
Question 362
The principle of "Uberrimae Fidei" in insurance contracts means:
View Explanation
Insurance contracts require "Utmost Good Faith," meaning both the insurer and the insured must disclose all material facts relevant to the risk. Hiding information can lead to the policy being voided.
Question 363
Which asset class in the National Pension System (NPS) corresponds to "Government Securities"?
View Explanation
In NPS, Asset Class E is Equity, Class C is Corporate Bonds, Class G is Government Securities, and Class A is Alternative Investment Funds.
Question 364
Which of the following is considered a "Para Banking" activity?
View Explanation
Para Banking activities are financial services undertaken by banks that are ancillary to their core banking business, such as Mutual Fund distribution, Insurance (Bancassurance), and Portfolio Management Services.
Question 365
Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) are regulated in India by:
View Explanation
REITs are investment vehicles that pool funds to invest in real estate. They function like mutual funds and are regulated by SEBI under the REIT Regulations, 2014.
Question 366
What is the maturity range for Commercial Papers (CPs) in India?
View Explanation
Commercial Papers can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.
Question 367
The "Green Shoe Option" allows a stabilizing agent to over-allot shares up to what percentage of the issue size?
View Explanation
SEBI guidelines allow the Green Shoe Option (price stabilization mechanism) to be exercised for up to 15% of the total issue size.
Question 368
The theory that states spot exchange rates change to equalize the purchasing power of currencies in their respective countries is called:
View Explanation
PPP theory asserts that exchange rates between currencies are in equilibrium when their purchasing power is the same in each of the two countries. It is based on the "Law of One Price".
Question 369
In "International Factoring", the two-factor system involves:
View Explanation
International factoring typically involves two factors: the Export Factor (in the exporter's country) who handles the client, and the Import Factor (in the importer's country) who handles credit assessment and collection from the buyer.
Question 370
The main difference between Venture Capital (VC) and Private Equity (PE) is:
View Explanation
Venture Capital focuses on high-risk, early-stage companies with growth potential. Private Equity typically invests larger amounts in mature companies to restructure or expand them.
Question 371
In a lease, if the asset becomes obsolete due to technological changes before the end of the lease term, this risk is known as:
View Explanation
Obsolescence risk is the risk that the asset loses value faster than expected due to new technology or market changes. In an Operating Lease, this risk remains with the Lessor; in a Finance Lease, it is transferred to the Lessee.
Question 372
Instruments with a credit rating of "BBB" (Triple B) and above are generally considered:
View Explanation
Ratings of BBB- (or equivalent) and above signify adequate safety regarding timely payment and are termed "Investment Grade." Ratings below this (BB and lower) are "Speculative" or "Junk" grade.
Question 373
What is the main benefit of "Rupee Cost Averaging" in a Systematic Investment Plan (SIP)?
View Explanation
Rupee Cost Averaging automatically adjusts the number of units purchased based on the NAV. When markets fall (NAV down), the fixed SIP amount buys more units, reducing the overall average cost of acquisition over time.
Question 374
Which type of life insurance policy provides coverage for a specific period and pays out ONLY if the policyholder dies during that term (no maturity benefit)?
View Explanation
Term Insurance is a pure protection plan. It offers a high sum assured at a low premium because there is no savings or investment component, and no payout if the insured survives the term.
Question 375
Contributions to NPS are eligible for an additional tax deduction (over and above the ?1.5 Lakh 80C limit) under which section of the Income Tax Act?
View Explanation
Section 80CCD(1B) provides an exclusive additional deduction of up to ?50,000 for contributions to the NPS Tier I account, over and above the ?1.5 Lakh limit under Section 80C.
Question 376
A "Repo" (Repurchase Agreement) is essentially a:
View Explanation
In a Repo, the borrower sells securities to the lender with an agreement to repurchase them at a future date at a predetermined price. The securities act as collateral for the short-term loan.
Question 377
A "Rights Issue" is an offer of shares to:
View Explanation
A Rights Issue gives existing shareholders the "right" (but not obligation) to buy new shares in proportion to their existing holdings, usually at a discount to the market price.
Question 378
Currency Futures in India are traded on:
View Explanation
Currency Futures are standardized contracts traded on exchanges (NSE, BSE, MSEI). In contrast, Currency Forwards are traded OTC between banks and clients.
Question 379
Besides financing, what other key service does a Factor provide?
View Explanation
Factors provide a comprehensive package including maintenance of the sales ledger, collection of dues from debtors, credit protection, and advisory services.
Question 380
Only a "Category I" Merchant Banker registered with SEBI can act as a:
View Explanation
SEBI regulations classify Merchant Bankers into categories. Only Category I Merchant Bankers are authorized to act as Lead Managers for public issues (IPOs/FPOs). Other categories have restricted roles.
Question 381
In an "Interest Rate Swap" (IRS), the principal amount is:
View Explanation
In an Interest Rate Swap (IRS), the principal is "Notional". It is never exchanged. Only the interest payment streams (e.g., fixed vs. floating) based on this notional principal are exchanged between the counterparties.
Question 382
Regarding the TReDS platform, which of the following statements is FALSE?
View Explanation
Financing on TReDS is "Without Recourse" to the MSME seller. Once the invoice is accepted by the buyer and financed, the financier takes the credit risk of the buyer. The MSME seller does not have to refund the money if the buyer defaults.
Question 383
A "Liquid Fund" must invest in debt and money market securities with a maturity of up to:
View Explanation
According to SEBI guidelines, Liquid Funds are debt funds that invest in instruments having a maturity of up to 91 days only. This minimizes interest rate risk.
Question 384
The "Principle of Indemnity" ensures that the insured is compensated only to the extent of the loss. This principle does NOT apply to:
View Explanation
Life Insurance is not a contract of indemnity because human life cannot be valued in monetary terms. The sum assured is paid regardless of the actual financial "loss" caused by death.
Question 385
In the NPS "Auto Choice" investment option, the "Aggressive Life Cycle Fund" (LC-75) allows a maximum equity exposure of:
View Explanation
Under Auto Choice (LC-75), the equity exposure starts at 75% until age 35 and then gradually reduces every year as the subscriber ages, shifting towards safer debt assets.
Question 386
What is the minimum denomination for issuing a Certificate of Deposit (CD)?
View Explanation
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) can be issued in multiples of ?1 Lakh, subject to a minimum size of ?1 Lakh.
Question 387
Since January 2016, SEBI has made the ASBA (Application Supported by Blocked Amount) facility mandatory for:
View Explanation
SEBI mandated that all categories of investors (Retail, HNI, QIB) must strictly apply through the ASBA mechanism to improve efficiency and reduce refunds.
Question 388
The "Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India" (FEDAI) primarily:
View Explanation
FEDAI is an association of banks dealing in forex. It frames rules for the conduct of inter-bank forex business and issues guidelines to Authorized Dealers, under RBI's overall supervision.
Question 389
Regarding "IPO Grading" in India, which statement is correct?
View Explanation
SEBI made IPO Grading optional in 2014. Grading (on a scale of 1 to 5) reflects the assessment of the company's fundamentals, not the issue price or potential returns.
Question 390
In a Hire Purchase agreement, when does the "Legal Ownership" (Title) of the asset pass to the hirer?
View Explanation
In Hire Purchase, the hirer is a bailee of the goods until the final installment is paid. The option to purchase is exercised only at the very end.
Question 391
"Sweat Equity" shares are issued by a company to its directors or employees for:
View Explanation
Sweat Equity acknowledges the non-monetary contribution (hard work, skills, IP) of founders and key employees. It is issued at a discount or for consideration other than cash.
Question 392
The practice where an issuer solicits ratings from multiple agencies but publishes only the most favorable one is known as:
View Explanation
Rating Shopping misleads investors about the true risk. SEBI has introduced strict disclosure norms to curb this, requiring issuers to disclose all ratings obtained, even those not accepted.
Question 393
Commercial banks in India can undertake the business of "Primary Dealership" (PD) in Government Securities:
View Explanation
RBI permits eligible commercial banks to undertake Primary Dealership business departmentally (without forming a separate subsidiary), provided they meet specific prudential criteria.
Question 394
As per SEBI regulations for REITs, the "Sponsor(s)" must collectively hold a minimum of what percentage of units for a specified period post-listing?
View Explanation
This is the "Skin in the Game" requirement. Sponsors must hold at least 25% of the units for 3 years from the date of listing to ensure their continued commitment to the REIT.
Question 395
Other factors remaining constant, an increase in the "Volatility" of the underlying asset price will generally cause the price (premium) of an Option to:
View Explanation
Higher volatility increases the probability that the option will end up "In the Money" (profitable). Therefore, sellers demand a higher premium for taking on this higher risk. This applies to both Call and Put options.
Question 396
In the Indian Money Market, the standard day count convention used for calculating interest on Treasury Bills is:
View Explanation
For T-Bills and G-Secs in India, the convention is Actual/365. This means interest/discount is calculated based on the actual number of days elapsed divided by a 365-day year.
Question 397
"Qualified Institutional Placement" (QIP) is a mechanism available only to:
View Explanation
QIP allows listed companies to raise capital quickly from institutional investors without the lengthy regulatory process of a standard public issue.
Question 398
A "Nostro Account" implies:
View Explanation
Nostro (Latin for "Ours") refers to a bank's account held in a foreign bank in that foreign country's currency (e.g., SBI holding a USD account with Citibank NY).
Question 399
Which organization sets the "General Rules for International Factoring" (GRIF)?
View Explanation
FCI is the global representative body for factoring and receivables finance. GRIF provides a legal framework for international factoring transactions.
Question 400
In "Treaty Reinsurance":
View Explanation
Unlike Facultative Reinsurance (case-by-case), Treaty Reinsurance is an automatic agreement covering a block of business.
Question 401
For purchasing Liquid Fund units, if the application and funds are received by 1:30 PM, what NAV is applicable?
View Explanation
Liquid funds are unique. For purchases up to cut-off time (usually 1:30 PM), the applicable NAV is of the day *immediately preceding* the day of application (Historical NAV), provided funds are realized.
Question 402
In the NPS architecture, a "Point of Presence" (PoP) acts as:
View Explanation
PoPs are the first point of contact for NPS subscribers. Banks and financial institutions registered as PoPs facilitate account opening and upload contributions.
Question 403
A "Sale and Leaseback" arrangement is primarily used by companies to:
View Explanation
In this arrangement, the owner sells an asset to a lessor and immediately leases it back. This frees up cash (capital) from the asset for working capital needs, without losing possession.
Question 404
Under Basel III capital regulations in India, if a borrower has two different ratings from two different credit rating agencies, which rating is applied for risk weighting?
View Explanation
Prudential norms dictate conservatism. If there are two ratings, the lower rating (indicating higher risk) must be used to calculate capital requirements.
Question 405
As per SEBI regulations, the minimum investment required from a client to open a "Portfolio Management Services" (PMS) account is:
View Explanation
SEBI raised the minimum ticket size for PMS from ?25 Lakh to ?50 Lakh in 2020 to ensure that only high-net-worth individuals with risk-taking capacity enter this segment.
Question 406
A publicly offered REIT is required to disclose its Net Asset Value (NAV) at least:
View Explanation
Since real estate valuations do not change daily, SEBI mandates REITs to declare NAV semi-annually based on a full valuation of assets.
Question 407
A "Credit Default Swap" (CDS) acts primarily as:
View Explanation
In a CDS, the buyer pays a premium to the seller. In return, the seller agrees to compensate the buyer if the underlying debt issuer defaults. It transfers credit risk.
Question 408
An "Anchor Investor" in an IPO is a Qualified Institutional Buyer (QIB) who:
View Explanation
Anchor Investors are allocated shares one day before the IPO opens to boost confidence. They have a lock-in period (partially 30 days, partially 90 days).
Question 409
TREPS (Tri-party Repo) replaced which earlier money market instrument?
View Explanation
TREPS replaced CBLO in 2018 to provide a more robust tri-party repo platform managed by CCIL.
Question 410
What is the mandatory lock-in period for a Unit Linked Insurance Plan (ULIP)?
View Explanation
Current regulations mandate a 5-year lock-in period for ULIPs, during which the policyholder cannot withdraw funds without surrendering the policy (with charges).
Question 411
An "Indian Depository Receipt" (IDR) is an instrument denominated in which currency?
View Explanation
An IDR is an instrument in the form of a depository receipt created by a Domestic Depository (custodian of securities registered with SEBI) against the underlying equity of issuing company to enable foreign companies to raise funds from the Indian securities market. It is denominated in Indian Rupees.
Question 412
If the exchange rate of USD/INR is 82.00 and GBP/USD is 1.25, what is the implied "Cross Rate" for GBP/INR?
View Explanation
To find GBP/INR, we multiply GBP/USD by USD/INR. (1.25 * 82.00 = 102.50). This calculation is used when a direct quote between two currencies is not available or to check for arbitrage opportunities.
Question 413
A "Forward Rate Agreement" (FRA) is primarily used to hedge against:
View Explanation
An FRA is a forward contract on interest rates. It allows a borrower or lender to lock in an interest rate for a future period, thereby protecting themselves against adverse movements in interest rates.
Question 414
In "Reverse Factoring" (also known as Supply Chain Finance), the arrangement is initiated by the:
View Explanation
Unlike traditional factoring where the supplier initiates the process to get funds, Reverse Factoring is buyer-led. A large buyer arranges a financing program with a bank/factor to pay its suppliers early (at a discount), improving the supply chain stability.
Question 415
What does the acronym "PIPE" stand for in the context of Private Equity deals?
View Explanation
PIPE involves the selling of publicly traded common shares or some form of preferred stock or convertible security to private investors (usually institutional investors) at a discount to the market price.
Question 416
For a "Financial Lease", how is the asset treated in the books of the Lessee (User)?
View Explanation
Since a Financial Lease transfers substantially all risks and rewards to the lessee, accounting standards require the lessee to capitalize the asset (show it on the Balance Sheet) and claim depreciation, even though legal title is with the lessor.
Question 417
A "Negative Outlook" assigned by a Credit Rating Agency implies:
View Explanation
A Rating Outlook assesses the potential direction of a long-term credit rating over the intermediate term (usually 6 months to 2 years). A "Negative" outlook means the rating may be lowered.
Question 418
Which type of Debt Mutual Fund carries the highest "Interest Rate Risk"?
View Explanation
Interest rate risk is directly proportional to the duration (maturity) of the bonds held. Long-duration funds like Gilt Funds (10-year) are highly sensitive to interest rate changes compared to short-duration funds.
Question 419
In Motor Insurance, "Third Party Liability" cover is:
View Explanation
Under the Motor Vehicles Act, Third Party Liability insurance is mandatory for all vehicles plying on public roads. It covers liability for death/injury to a third party or damage to third-party property.
Question 420
At the age of 60, what is the maximum percentage of the accumulated NPS corpus that a subscriber can withdraw as a tax-free lump sum?
View Explanation
At retirement (age 60), a subscriber can withdraw up to 60% of the corpus as a tax-free lump sum. The remaining 40% must be used to purchase an annuity.
Question 421
Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are instruments used by:
View Explanation
P-Notes are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who wish to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly.
Question 422
The process of "Reverse Book Building" is primarily used for:
View Explanation
Reverse Book Building is the mechanism used for price discovery when a company decides to delist its shares from the stock exchanges and buy back shares from the public.
Question 423
Which type of account allows an NRI to deposit income earned in India (like rent, dividends) and has restricted repatriability?
View Explanation
The Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) account is for managing income earned in India. Interest earned is taxable, and repatriation is limited (currently USD 1 million per financial year). NRE accounts are for foreign earnings and are fully repatriable.
Question 424
The "ISIN" (International Securities Identification Number) code is a unique identifier for:
View Explanation
ISIN is a 12-digit alphanumeric code that uniquely identifies a specific security (like equity share, debenture, etc.) admitted in the depository system.
Question 425
In Options trading, the "Delta" measures:
View Explanation
Delta represents the rate of change of the option premium with respect to the change in the price of the underlying asset.
Question 426
The key difference between "Recourse Factoring" and "Non-Recourse Factoring" lies in:
View Explanation
In Recourse Factoring, the client (seller) bears the risk of bad debts. In Non-Recourse Factoring, the Factor bears the risk if the customer fails to pay due to insolvency.
Question 427
In a typical Lease agreement, the legal ownership of the asset remains with:
View Explanation
Throughout the lease term, the Lessor (the entity leasing out the asset) retains the legal title/ownership. The Lessee only gets the right to use the asset.
Question 428
The benefit of "Indexation" available on Long Term Capital Gains (LTCG) from Debt Mutual Funds allows investors to:
View Explanation
(Note: Recent Finance Act changes may have altered this for new investments, but historically/conceptually Indexation adjusts the buying price using the Cost Inflation Index (CII), lowering the tax burden.)
Question 429
White Label ATMs (WLAs) are owned and operated by:
View Explanation
WLAs are set up, owned, and operated by non-bank entities incorporated under the Companies Act, authorized by RBI. They do not display any bank's branding.
Question 430
Dividends distributed by a REIT to its unit holders are generally exempt from tax in the hands of the unit holder, PROVIDED:
View Explanation
If the REIT SPV has not opted for the lower tax regime (Section 115BAA), the dividend income is tax-free for unit holders. If SPV opts for lower tax, dividends are taxable for investors.
Question 431
In a Repo transaction, the securities sold by the borrower are:
View Explanation
Although legal title passes, the economic substance is a collateralized loan. Thus, the borrower continues to recognize the securities in their Balance Sheet and recognizes a liability for the repurchase price.
Question 432
Which regulation governs the obligations of listed companies regarding disclosure and transparency?
View Explanation
SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (LODR) sets out the compliance norms for listed entities to ensure transparency and protect investor interests.
Question 433
Under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS), what is the maximum amount a resident individual can remit overseas per financial year?
View Explanation
Resident individuals can remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year for permissible current or capital account transactions under LRS.
Question 434
The "Due Diligence Certificate" submitted to SEBI before a public issue implies that:
View Explanation
It serves as a declaration by the Lead Manager that they have exercised reasonable care in verifying the disclosures made in the offer document.
Question 435
Which of the following is NOT a licensed TReDS platform operator in India?
View Explanation
BillDesk is a payment gateway. The three RBI-licensed TReDS platforms are RXIL, Invoicemart, and M1xchange.
Question 436
The term "Angel Tax" refers to income tax payable on:
View Explanation
Under Section 56(2)(viib), if a startup raises capital at a valuation higher than its Fair Market Value, the excess amount is treated as income and taxed. (Note: Recent budgets have eased this for DPIIT registered startups).
Question 437
Which factor is least likely to influence a country's "Sovereign Credit Rating"?
View Explanation
Sovereign ratings assess the government's ability to repay debt. Macro-economic indicators (Debt, Forex, Stability) matter, not the stock performance of individual private firms.
Question 438
The PFRDA Act, 2013 mandates that the foreign investment limit in the pension sector shall be linked to the limit in which other sector?
View Explanation
The Act specifies that the FDI limit in the pension sector shall be the same as the limit in the insurance sector (currently 74%).
Question 439
In the "Referral Model" of Bancassurance, the bank:
View Explanation
In the Referral Model, the bank only refers clients (leads) to the insurance company and provides physical infrastructure/data, receiving a referral fee. The actual selling is done by the insurer's staff.
Question 440
What is the effect of the "T+1" settlement cycle in the Indian equity market?
View Explanation
T+1 means settlement occurs on the next working day following the trade day, releasing capital faster and reducing counterparty risk compared to T+2.
Question 441
According to SEBI regulations, a Credit Rating Agency (CRA) must disclose its "Rating Philosophy" to ensure:
View Explanation
SEBI mandates CRAs to disclose their rating criteria, methodology, and philosophy to the public to maintain transparency and help investors understand how the creditworthiness was assessed.
Question 442
The "General Rules for International Factoring" (GRIF) are issued by:
View Explanation
FCI is the global representative body for factoring. GRIF provides a uniform legal framework for international factoring transactions between export and import factors.
Question 443
Who claims the "Depreciation" benefit for tax purposes in an Operating Lease?
View Explanation
In an Operating Lease, the risks and rewards of ownership remain with the Lessor. Therefore, the Lessor retains the asset on their books and claims depreciation as a tax deduction. The Lessee claims the lease rental as an expense.
Question 444
Venture Capital Funds (VCFs) in India are regulated under which SEBI regulation?
View Explanation
VCFs are now classified as Category I Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) under the SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012. The older VCF regulations were repealed.
Question 445
In a ULIP, the "Mortality Charge" is deducted to cover:
View Explanation
Mortality charge is the cost of insurance protection. It is deducted from the fund value by cancelling units and depends on the sum assured and the age of the policyholder.
Question 446
Which of the following is a key feature of the NPS Tier II account?
View Explanation
Tier II is an add-on voluntary savings account. Unlike Tier I, it offers liquidity as subscribers can withdraw money anytime. However, it generally does not offer tax benefits (except for a specific scheme for govt employees with a 3-year lock-in).
Question 447
SEBI has capped the Total Expense Ratio (TER) for equity-oriented mutual fund schemes. As the Assets Under Management (AUM) of the scheme increases, the permissible TER:
View Explanation
SEBI follows a slab-based structure where the maximum TER % decreases as the AUM slab increases, ensuring that the benefits of economies of scale are passed on to investors.
Question 448
The rate at which a bank buys foreign currency from a customer (exporter/individual) is known as the:
View Explanation
When a customer wants to convert foreign currency into rupees, the bank "buys" the FCY. The rate applied is the TT Buying Rate or Bill Buying Rate, which is lower than the selling rate.
Question 449
Primary Dealers (PDs) are required to meet underwriting commitments in the auctions of:
View Explanation
PDs have a mandatory obligation to underwrite the issuances of Government Securities to ensure that the government's borrowing program is successful.
Question 450
A REIT must invest at least what percentage of its asset value in completed and rent-generating properties?
View Explanation
SEBI regulations mandate that at least 80% of the value of the REIT assets must be invested in completed and revenue-generating properties to minimize development risk for investors.
Question 451
The "Put-Call Parity" relationship applies to:
View Explanation
Put-Call Parity defines the relationship between the price of a European Call option and a European Put option with the same strike price and expiration. It does not strictly hold for American options due to early exercise possibilities.
Question 452
In Domestic Factoring, typically how many factors are involved?
View Explanation
Domestic factoring usually involves a Single Factor who manages the receivables of the seller and collects from the buyer within the same country.
Question 453
Venture Capital Funds in India are essentially closed-ended funds. What is the minimum tenure (life) of a VCF scheme as per SEBI norms?
View Explanation
SEBI AIF Regulations stipulate that Category I and II AIFs (including VCFs) shall be close-ended and have a minimum tenure of 3 years.
Question 454
A "Wet Lease" typically refers to a lease arrangement (often in aviation) where the lessor provides:
View Explanation
In a Wet Lease, the lessor provides the aircraft, complete crew, maintenance, and insurance. A Dry Lease involves only the aircraft.
Question 455
National E-Governance Services Ltd (NeSL) serves as India's first:
View Explanation
NeSL is the first Information Utility registered with IBBI under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. It stores financial information (debts/defaults) to facilitate insolvency resolution.
Question 456
The "Scheme Information Document" (SID) of a Mutual Fund contains detailed information about:
View Explanation
SID provides all necessary details specific to a scheme that an investor needs to make an informed decision. General information is in the SAI (Statement of Additional Information).
Question 457
The "No Claim Bonus" (NCB) in motor insurance is a discount given on:
View Explanation
NCB is a reward for not making a claim in the preceding year(s). It applies only to the Own Damage component of the premium, not the mandatory Third-Party component.
Question 458
If an NPS subscriber exits before the age of 60 (Premature Exit), they must compulsorily annuitize at least what percentage of the accumulated corpus?
View Explanation
For premature exit (before superannuation/60), 80% of the corpus must be used to buy an annuity, and only 20% can be withdrawn as a lump sum.
Question 459
Banks distributing Mutual Fund products to their customers act in the capacity of:
View Explanation
Banks act as corporate agents or distributors registered with AMFI (Association of Mutual Funds in India) to sell MF schemes and earn commission.
Question 460
SEBI-mandated "Circuit Breakers" in the stock market are triggered based on the movement of:
View Explanation
Market-wide circuit breakers are triggered by 10%, 15%, or 20% movement in either BSE Sensex or Nifty 50, leading to a temporary halt in trading.
Question 461
The "Bank Rate" is currently aligned with which other policy rate?
View Explanation
Under the revised monetary policy framework, the Bank Rate is aligned with the MSF Rate (usually 25 bps above the Repo Rate). They move in tandem.
Question 462
In "Undisclosed Factoring", the arrangement is:
View Explanation
In Undisclosed Factoring, the buyer is not aware of the factoring arrangement. The seller collects the payment in the usual course and passes it to the factor.
Question 463
"Arbitrage" in forex markets refers to:
View Explanation
Arbitrage exploits price inefficiencies between markets for risk-free profit.
Question 464
The "Primary Period" in a lease usually refers to:
View Explanation
The Primary Period is the basic non-cancellable term of the lease aiming at cost recovery + profit. The Secondary Period follows, often with nominal rent.
Question 465
A Merchant Banker's registration with SEBI is valid for:
View Explanation
SEBI amended regulations to grant permanent registration to intermediaries like Merchant Bankers, subject to payment of fees and compliance.
Question 466
The "Startup India Seed Fund Scheme" (SISFS) provides financial assistance to startups for:
View Explanation
SISFS aims to provide capital at the earliest stage to help startups validate their ideas and reach a level where they can raise angel/VC funding.
Question 467
Under Basel norms, External Credit Assessments (Ratings) are used to determine:
View Explanation
The Standardized Approach for Credit Risk under Basel norms uses external ratings to assign risk weights (e.g., AAA = 20%, BBB = 50% or 100%) to bank exposures.
Question 468
What is the minimum "Public Float" required for a listed REIT/InvIT?
View Explanation
Listed REITs/InvITs must maintain a minimum public shareholding (float) of 25% to ensure liquidity and broad ownership.
Question 469
The "Initial Margin" in a Futures Contract is collected by the clearinghouse to:
View Explanation
Initial Margin acts as a security deposit (good faith deposit) to ensure that parties fulfill their obligations, covering the maximum probable loss in a single day.
Question 470
Treasury Bills are auctioned by RBI on behalf of the Government of India using which platform?
View Explanation
E-Kuber is the Core Banking Solution (CBS) of the RBI. The auction of Government Securities and T-Bills is conducted on the E-Kuber platform.