Question 1
According to Modigliani-Miller (MM) Hypothesis "Proposition I" (without taxes), the value of a firm is:
MM Proposition I (No Tax) states that in a perfect market, how a firm finances its operations (Debt vs Equity) is irrelevant to its total value. Value is determined by its earning power and risk of assets, not funding mix.
Question 2
Financial Leverage becomes "Favorable" (Positive) only when:
If ROI > Cost of Debt, using debt magnifies the Earnings Per Share (EPS) for shareholders (Trading on Equity). If ROI < Cost of Debt, leverage destroys value.
Question 3
The "Indifference Point" (EBIT-EPS Analysis) refers to the level of EBIT where:
At the indifference point, the firm is indifferent between choosing Debt plan or Equity plan because the EPS remains identical. Below this EBIT level, equity is better; above it, debt is better.
Question 4
The "Pecking Order Theory" suggests that firms prioritize financing sources in which order?
Firms prefer internal funds (Retained Earnings) first because they are cheapest and safest. Next is Debt. External Equity is the last resort due to high costs and dilution.
Question 5
The "Optimal Capital Structure" is the mix of debt and equity that:
The goal is to find the cheapest mix of funds. Lower WACC means higher Net Present Value of future cash flows, thus maximizing firm value.
Question 6
The Net Operating Income (NOI) Theory of Capital Structure assumes that:
NOI theory suggests that the benefits of cheaper debt are exactly offset by the increasing cost of equity (higher risk), leaving the overall WACC (Ko) and Firm Value unchanged.
Question 7
The "Trade-off Theory" of capital structure argues that a firm balances:
Firms take on debt to get tax shields (benefit), but only up to a point where the risk of bankruptcy (financial distress cost) starts outweighing the tax benefit.
Question 8
Costs associated with bankruptcy or financial distress (like legal fees, loss of customers) are known as:
These costs offset the tax benefits of debt in the Trade-off Theory, suggesting an optimal level of debt exists.
Question 9
Modigliani-Miller Proposition II (with taxes) states that the Cost of Equity (Ke) increases as:
As a firm takes on more debt (higher D/E ratio), the financial risk to shareholders increases. Shareholders demand a higher return (Ke) to compensate for this added risk.
Question 10
As the Debt-Equity ratio increases beyond an optimal point, the "Cost of Debt" starts rising because:
Excessive debt increases the probability of bankruptcy. Lenders compensate for this increased credit risk by charging higher interest rates.
Question 11
MM Proposition II (Without Taxes) states that as leverage increases, the Cost of Equity (Ke):
Cheaper debt reduces WACC, but increased financial risk raises Ke. MM II argues these exactly cancel out, keeping overall WACC constant.
Question 12
The "Traditional View" of Capital Structure suggests that:
Unlike MM theory, the Traditional View argues that judicious use of debt initially lowers the WACC (Ko) up to a point. Beyond this point, rising financial risk causes Ke and Kd to rise, increasing WACC. The lowest point of the U-shaped WACC curve is the optimal structure.
Question 13
"Agency Costs" in capital structure arise due to the conflict of interest between:
Managers might pursue personal goals (like expensive jets) over shareholder wealth (Agency cost of equity). Shareholders might take high risks to shift loss to debt-holders (Agency cost of debt).
Question 14
According to MM Theory WITH Corporate Taxes, the value of a levered firm (Vl) is equal to:
With taxes, debt provides a tax shield. The value of the firm increases by the Present Value of the Tax Shield, which is Debt * Tax Rate (Dt). So Vl = Vu + Dt.
Question 15
A company is said to be "Over-capitalized" when:
Over-capitalization doesn't mean too much money. It means the capital base is too large relative to the earnings, leading to low dividend rates and falling share prices.