Question 1
Which of the following statements regarding a "Banker's General Lien" is INCORRECT?
General Lien does NOT apply when goods/securities are entrusted for a specific purpose (like safe custody or selling shares). In such cases, the banker acts as a Bailee/Trustee, and the specific purpose overrides the general right of lien.
Question 2
In a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) account, what happens upon the death of the Karta?
Upon the death of the Karta, the bank must stop operations to determine the new Karta (usually the next eldest coparcener). While recent laws allow daughters to be coparceners and potentially Karta, the succession must be formally established before operations resume to avoid legal disputes.
Question 3
Under PMLA rules, who is considered the "Beneficial Owner" in case of a partnership firm?
For partnership firms, the threshold for identifying the beneficial owner is ownership of/entitlement to more than 15% of capital or profits of the partnership, or who exercises control through other means.
Question 4
A Power of Attorney (PoA) granted to operate a bank account stands automatically revoked in which of the following scenarios? I. Death of the Principal (Account Holder). II. Insanity of the Principal. III. Death of the Agent (Attorney).
A Power of Attorney is an agency relationship. It is terminated automatically upon the death, insanity, or insolvency of either the Principal or the Agent. Therefore, in all three cases, the PoA ceases to be valid.
Question 5
Which essential condition must be met for a bank to exercise the "Right of Set-off"?
For Set-off, debts must be mutual: between the same parties, held in the same right and capacity. A bank cannot set off a customer's personal credit balance against a debit balance in their trust account or a joint account (unless all joint holders are liable).
Question 6
Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, who is the natural guardian of a Hindu minor boy?
The Act specifies the Father as the primary natural guardian. The Mother becomes the natural guardian only after the Father. (Note: This applies to boys and unmarried girls; for illegitimate children, the Mother is the primary guardian).
Question 7
Regarding "Nomination" in deposit accounts, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A minor can be appointed as a nominee. However, if the depositor dies while the nominee is still a minor, the payment is made to a person appointed by the depositor to receive the amount on behalf of the minor. Nomination is valid only for individuals, not Trusts/HUFs.
Question 8
An account is classified as "Inoperative" or "Dormant" if there are no customer-induced transactions for a period of:
If a savings or current account witnesses no customer-induced transactions (credit or debit) for a continuous period of 2 years (24 months) , it is classified as inoperative/dormant to prevent fraud.
Question 9
Before closing a customer's account due to "Undesirable Behavior", the bank is legally obligated to:
Based on the principle of natural justice and legal precedents (like Prosperity Ltd vs Lloyds Bank), a bank must provide reasonable notice to the customer before closing an account to allow them time to clear cheques and make alternate arrangements.
Question 10
When a customer deposits sealed boxes or valuables with the bank for "Safe Custody", the relationship between the bank and customer is:
In safe custody, the goods are entrusted to the bank for a specific purpose (safety) to be returned later. The customer is the Bailor (owner), and the bank is the Bailee (custodian). This differs from a Locker where the bank is a Lessor.
Question 11
A cheque drawn on a Partnership Firm's account is presented for payment after the death of one partner. The cheque is dated before the partner's death. The bank should:
Normally, the death of a partner dissolves the firm. However, regarding old transactions (cheques issued before death), the bank can pay them to avoid dishonor, provided the account has funds and the surviving partners don't object. The estate of the deceased partner remains liable for acts done before death.
Question 12
For "High Risk" customers, banks are required to carry out periodic updation of KYC (Re-KYC) at least once in every:
According to RBI KYC norms: High Risk - Every 2 years; Medium Risk - Every 8 years; Low Risk - Every 10 years.
Question 13
Simplified Due Diligence (SDD) is permissible for:
SDD is allowed for low-risk customers like SHGs to promote financial inclusion. For SHG savings accounts, CDD of all members is not required; CDD of office bearers suffices.
Question 14
When a bank collects a cheque and the proceeds are held pending instructions from the customer for investment, the bank stands in the capacity of:
Normally, a bank collecting a cheque is an Agent. However, if the money is collected and held specifically *in trust* for a specific purpose (like investment) and not just credited to the general account, the relationship shifts to Trustee-Beneficiary.
Question 15
In a joint deposit account with "Either or Survivor" mandate, if one holder dies, can the survivor nominate a new person?
Upon the death of one joint holder in an E or S account, the title to the deposit passes to the survivor. Being the sole owner now, the survivor has the right to cancel old nominations and make a fresh nomination.
Question 16
Which of the following best describes the risk category of Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs)?
PEPs are individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public functions (e.g., Heads of State, politicians). Due to potential involvement in bribery and corruption, they are classified as High Risk customers requiring Enhanced Due Diligence (EDD).
Question 17
Which document is the "Charter" of a company and defines its constitution and scope of powers?
The Memorandum of Association (MoA) defines the company's relationship with the outside world and sets the limits (scope) of its operations. Any act outside the MoA is "Ultra Vires" (void). AoA defines internal rules.
Question 18
A Cash Transaction Report (CTR) must be submitted to FIU-IND for aggregate cash deposits/withdrawals exceeding what amount in a month?
Banks must report all cash transactions of the value of more than ?10 Lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency (integrally connected series of transactions in a month) to FIU-IND by the 15th of the succeeding month.
Question 19
A Garnishee Order Nisi creates a charge on the customer's account, but:
Order Nisi is a preliminary order asking the bank to freeze the funds and explain why they shouldn't be paid. Only after the Order is made "Absolute" does the bank pay the court.
Question 20
The Banker-Customer relationship is terminated in all of the following cases EXCEPT:
A Garnishee Order suspends the operation of the account (freezes it) but does not terminate the relationship. The account can become active again if the order is revoked or satisfied. Death, closure, or insanity typically end the active contract.
Question 21
When opening an account for an Illiterate Person, which of the following is NOT a standard safeguard?
An illiterate person CAN open a single account. While joint operation is allowed, it is not mandatory that they must open a joint account. The other safeguards (witness, photo, no cheque book) are standard.
Question 22
Which of the following customers would typically be classified as "Low Risk"?
Salaried employees, government departments, and small amounts balances are generally Low Risk. HNIs, Jewelers, and Non-face-to-face customers are usually Medium or High Risk due to higher money laundering potential.
Question 23
In a "Former or Survivor" (F or S) joint account, who has the right to operate the account during the lifetime of the Former?
In an F or S account, only the first named person (Former) can operate the account as long as they are alive. The Survivor gets rights only after the death of the Former.
Question 24
A customer gives a Mandate to his agent. Later, the customer becomes insane. The bank is aware of this. What should the bank do with a cheque signed by the agent presented after the insanity?
The insanity of the Principal (customer) automatically terminates the agency/mandate. The agent's authority ceases immediately. Therefore, the bank must stop operations and dishonor the cheque to protect the principal's funds.
Question 25
An STR (Suspicious Transaction Report) must be filed with FIU-IND within how many days of arriving at a conclusion that a transaction is suspicious?
While CTRs are filed monthly (by 15th), STRs must be filed within 7 working days of the bank's Principal Officer determining that a transaction is suspicious.
Question 26
The Rule in Clayton's Case relates to:
Clayton's Rule states that in a running account, the first debit is discharged by the first credit (FIFO - First In, First Out), unless there is a contrary intention. This is vital for determining liability in overdrafts when guarantees are revoked.
Question 27
Unregistered Clubs and Societies are not legal entities. Therefore, banks should typically avoid opening accounts for them to avoid issues related to:
Since an unregistered body has no separate legal existence, it cannot be sued in its own name. If the account goes into debit/overdraft, recovering money becomes legally complex as the bank has to sue individual members.
Question 28
An entry in the passbook is generally considered:
Entries in a passbook are strong evidence (prima facie) against the bank, but they are not conclusive. A bank can prove an entry was made by mistake (e.g., wrong credit) and reverse it, provided the customer hasn't altered their position based on that entry.
Question 29
Which of the following is NOT an "Officially Valid Document" (OVD) for KYC purposes as per RBI?
The 6 OVDs are: Passport, Driving License, Voter ID, MGNREGA Card, Aadhaar, and NPR Letter. PAN Card is mandatory for financial transactions but is technically not listed as an OVD for *address proof* in the core list, and Ration Card is definitely not an OVD anymore.
Question 30
If a bank receives a Garnishee Order attaching a customer's account, but the bank already has a prior right of set-off against a due loan from the same customer:
The bank has the right to combine accounts and set off dues BEFORE complying with the Garnishee order, provided the bank's debt was due and recoverable at the time the order was served.
Question 31
Which of the following is NOT a privilege of a "Holder in Due Course" (HDC) under the NI Act, 1881?
While an HDC gets a better title than the transferor (curing defects like fraud or lack of consideration), Forgery is a nullity . A forged signature does not convey any title, and even an HDC cannot acquire a valid title on a forged instrument.
Question 32
Which of the following alterations on a cheque does NOT require the drawer's full signature for confirmation (i.e., it is not a material alteration avoiding the instrument)?
Section 87 of NI Act: Converting a Bearer cheque to Order is allowed and restricts the negotiability safely, so it is not considered a material alteration that voids the cheque. However, converting Order to Bearer is material and needs signature.
Question 33
A Paying Banker gets statutory protection under Section 85(1) of the NI Act for payment of an "Order Cheque" only if:
Section 85(1) protects the paying banker for order cheques if the endorsement purports to be regular (even if forged), provided the payment is made in Due Course (good faith and without negligence).
Question 34
If an endorser signs his name and adds the words "Sans Recourse", it means:
"Sans Recourse" means "without recourse". By adding this, the endorser denies liability to any subsequent holder if the instrument is dishonored.
Question 35
Under the revised RBI guidelines for Safe Deposit Lockers, if the contents of a locker are lost due to fire, theft, or building collapse (negligence of bank), the bank's liability is limited to:
The revised guidelines (2021) state that in case of incidents like fire, theft, burglary, or building collapse attributable to the bank's deficiency, the liability shall be 100 times the prevailing annual rent of the locker.
Question 36
In a Joint Account with "Jointly" operation instruction, if a cheque is issued signed by all, but one account holder sends a "Stop Payment" instruction:
The authority to *draw* funds is joint, but the authority to *revoke* the mandate (stop payment) is individual. Any single joint holder can stop payment to protect the funds.
Question 37
Which of the following is a key difference between NEFT and RTGS?
NEFT transactions are settled in batches (DNS), whereas RTGS transactions are settled individually and continuously (Real-Time Gross). Now both operate 24x7.
Question 38
A "Small Account" (opened without full KYC) has certain limitations. Which of the following is correct?
Limitations of Small Accounts: Total credits in a FY = ?1 Lakh; Balance at any point = ?50,000; Withdrawals in a month = ?10,000. No foreign remittances allowed.
Question 39
Cash Management Services (CMS) offered by banks primarily aim to help corporates in:
CMS products focus on efficient inflow and outflow of funds (Collection and Payment services) to minimize idle cash and improve working capital management.
Question 40
Section 131 of the NI Act protects the Collecting Banker only if:
Protection to Collecting Banker (Section 131) applies only for crossed cheques collected for a customer in good faith and without negligence .
Question 41
What is the primary difference between a Mandate and a Power of Attorney (PoA) regarding bank accounts?
A Mandate is usually specific to a bank account and given on the bank's standard form. A PoA is a general legal document drafted on stamp paper that can cover various acts, including property and legal representation, beyond just banking.
Question 42
When opening an account for an Executor/Administrator, the bank must inspect the:
An Executor derives authority from the Will (confirmed by Probate). An Administrator is appointed by the court (Letter of Administration) if there is no will. These documents validate their legal standing.
Question 43
Can a Garnishee Order issued in the name of Mr. A attach the funds in a Joint Account held by "Mr. A and Mr. B"?
A Garnishee Order can only attach funds that solely belong to the judgment debtor. A joint account (A & B) cannot be attached for A's individual debt because the debt is not due to A alone. However, the reverse is true (A's account can be attached for a joint debt of A & B).
Question 44
A cheque crossed "Not Negotiable" implies that:
"Not Negotiable" does NOT restrict transferability. It restricts the property of "Negotiability" (the ability to give better title). Even a bona fide holder for value cannot get a good title if the transferor had a defective title (e.g., stolen cheque).
Question 45
The Central KYC Records Registry (CKYCR) is managed by:
The Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India (CERSAI) manages the CKYCR to reduce the burden of producing KYC documents every time a customer opens a new relationship with a financial entity.
Question 46
For settlement of claims in deceased depositor accounts without nomination/survivorship clause, the bank should generally insist on Succession Certificate only if:
RBI advises banks to settle claims simply on indemnity for small amounts. Legal representation (Succession Certificate) should be insisted upon only in cases of large amounts or disputes to avoid harassment of heirs.
Question 47
According to the rule of appropriation (Section 60-61 Contract Act), if a debtor makes a payment without specifying the debt to be discharged, and there are multiple debts:
If the debtor doesn't intimate, the creditor has the discretion to appropriate the payment to any lawful debt actually due, even if it is barred by the law of limitation.
Question 48
Why do banks generally not pay interest on Current Accounts?
Current accounts offer fluidity and unlimited transactions (cheques, transfers) which incurs high operational costs for banks. Hence, no interest is paid (though RBI deregulated this, most banks still don't pay to maintain margins).
Question 49
A Demand Draft (DD) cannot be countermanded (stopped) by the purchaser because:
Once issued, a DD is a direct commitment of the bank to pay. The purchaser is not the drawer; the bank is. Therefore, the purchaser cannot simply stop payment like a personal cheque unless there is a court order or loss of instrument.
Question 50
In case of an unauthorized electronic banking transaction where the fault lies with the bank, the customer's liability is:
As per RBI guidelines on limiting customer liability, if the fraud/negligence/deficiency is on the part of the bank, the customer has Zero Liability , regardless of when they report it.
Question 51
Which of the following is considered a Material Alteration making the cheque void?
Changing the amount (sum payable) alters the character and liability of the instrument significantly. Without the drawer's authentication, this is a material alteration under Section 87, rendering the cheque void.
Question 52
Foreign students studying in India can open an NRO account. What is the monthly withdrawal cap imposed on such accounts before full KYC verification?
For foreign students, pending verification of local address, the account is operated with a condition that withdrawal should not exceed ?50,000 per month and total credits should not exceed ?1 Lakh in the financial year.
Question 53
In a "Jointly" operated account of A and B, if A dies, can the bank pay the balance to B (Survivor)?
Unless there is a specific survivorship mandate (like Either or Survivor), a simple "Jointly" operated account implies joint ownership. Upon death, the contract ends, and the balance is payable jointly to the Survivor (B) and the Legal Heirs of A.
Question 54
When a minor attains majority, what action must the bank take regarding his account operated by a guardian?
The guardianship terminates automatically when the minor attains majority. The bank must stop the guardian's operations and take fresh instructions and specimen signatures from the erstwhile minor.
Question 55
In the Cheque Truncation System (CTS), the physical cheque is truncated by:
In CTS, the Presenting/Collecting Bank captures the image of the cheque and sends the electronic data to the Paying Bank. The physical movement of the cheque is stopped (truncated) at the Collecting Bank's end.
Question 56
When a borrower pledges a Life Insurance Policy as security for a loan, the relationship is created through:
Assignment involves the transfer of rights, title, and interest in the policy from the policyholder (assignor) to the bank (assignee). It is the correct mode for creating security on insurance policies.
Question 57
Can a bank exercise "General Lien" on a Fixed Deposit Receipt (FDR) deposited by the customer?
Technically, "Lien" is the right to retain goods. An FDR represents money (a debt owed by the bank). You cannot have a lien on your own debt. The correct legal concept for adjusting FD against a loan is "Set-off". However, loosely in banking, it is often called lien.
Question 58
A locker is hired by A and B jointly with instructions "Either or Survivor". A dies. B wants to remove the contents. What should the bank do?
In a locker with a survivorship clause ("Either or Survivor"), the bank is validly discharged by allowing the survivor to access and remove contents. The bank need not insist on the presence of legal heirs unless there is a court order restraining it.
Question 59
A "Certificate of Commencement of Business" is required to open a bank account for:
Under the Companies Act, a Public Limited Company needs a Certificate of Commencement of Business in addition to the Certificate of Incorporation to start operations and borrow money. Private companies only need Incorporation cert.
Question 60
A Power of Attorney holder generally CANNOT do which of the following acts on behalf of the Principal unless specifically empowered?
A general mandate to operate an account does not imply the authority to borrow money or overdraw the account, which creates a debt liability for the principal. This power must be explicitly stated.
Question 61
Under Section 85(2) of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a paying banker is discharged from liability for payment of a bearer cheque even if:
Section 85(2) provides that where a cheque is originally expressed to be payable to bearer, the banker is discharged by payment in due course to the bearer of the instrument, notwithstanding any endorsement whether in full or in blank appearing thereon. This means the banker need not verify the regularity of endorsements on a bearer cheque because the title passes by delivery, and endorsements are legally superfluous for negotiation.
Question 62
As per the revised RBI guidelines on Safe Deposit Lockers (2021), banks must ensure that the locker agreement is stamped according to the Stamp Act of the respective state. Who bears the cost of the stamp paper and execution of the agreement?
In a significant shift for consumer protection, the revised RBI guidelines mandate that the Bank shall bear the cost of stamp paper and other expenses related to the execution of the locker agreement for both new and existing locker hirers. This ensures standardization and removes the financial burden of documentation from the customer.
Question 63
The "Maker-Checker" principle in a Core Banking Solution (CBS) environment is primarily designed to:
The Maker-Checker principle acts as a critical internal control mechanism. It mandates that for any transaction (especially financial or sensitive data changes), there must be at least two individuals involved: one to initiate/create (Maker) and another to verify/authorize (Checker/Authorizer). This segregation of duties minimizes the risk of internal fraud, unauthorized transactions, and human error.
Question 64
When opening an account for a registered Society or Club, which document is critical for determining the authorized signatories and their powers?
While the Resolution of the Managing Committee specifies who will operate the account *currently*, the Bye-laws are the fundamental governing rules that define the *constitution* of the society, the powers of the committee, election rules, and the procedure for appointing signatories. The bank must verify that the resolution passed is consistent with the powers conferred by the Bye-laws.
Question 65
If a bank detects 5 or more counterfeit notes in a single deposit transaction at the counter, what is the mandatory reporting procedure?
As per RBI guidelines, if 5 or more counterfeit notes are detected in a single transaction, the Nodal Bank Officer must file an FIR (First Information Report) with the local police station immediately. For less than 5 notes, a consolidated report is sent to the police at the end of the month. In all cases, notes must be impounded and stamped "COUNTERFEIT BANKNOTE"; they must never be returned to the depositor.
Question 66
If a customer's account is debited during an ATM transaction but cash is not dispensed, the bank must reverse the amount within T+5 days. If it fails to do so, what is the compensation payable to the customer?
The RBI mandates that banks must resolve failed ATM transactions (wrong debits) within 5 calendar days (T+5) from the date of transaction. Beyond this period, the bank is liable to pay a compensation of ?100 per day of delay to the account holder, without waiting for a formal complaint/claim from the customer.
Question 67
Clayton's Rule is particularly significant for banks in the case of:
Clayton's Rule (First-In-First-Out for appropriation) implies that subsequent credits into a running account discharge the earliest debits. If a guarantee is revoked or a partner dies (terminating liability), the bank must break the account (stop operations) immediately. If they continue the account, new credits will pay off the old "guaranteed" debt, while new debits will create a new "unsecured" debt, leaving the bank exposed.
Question 68
If a bank delays the issuance of a duplicate Demand Draft (in lieu of a lost one) beyond a fortnight (14 days) from the receipt of the request and necessary documents, what is the penalty?
To protect customers, RBI mandates that a duplicate DD must be issued within 14 days. If there is a delay beyond this period, the bank must pay interest at the rate applicable for Fixed Deposits of corresponding maturity to the purchaser, to compensate for the loss of use of funds.
Question 69
If a bank lends money to a Trust for a purpose NOT authorized by the Trust Deed, and the Trustees default, can the bank recover the money from the Trust's assets?
Trustees have only those powers granted by the Trust Deed. If they borrow for an unauthorized purpose, the act is Ultra Vires (beyond powers). The Trust estate cannot be bound by such acts. The bank can only look to the trustees personally for recovery, making it a high-risk situation.
Question 70
Which of the following complaints is NOT maintainable before the RBI Integrated Ombudsman?
The Ombudsman scheme aims to resolve "Deficiency in Service." It specifically excludes complaints arising from the commercial judgment/decisions of the bank, such as whether to grant a loan or the interest rate charged (unless not as per RBI guidelines), to avoid interfering in business autonomy.
Question 71
Section 131A of the Negotiable Instruments Act extends the protection available to a collecting banker (under Section 131) to which other instrument?
Section 131 protects a banker collecting crossed cheques. Section 131A explicitly applies this chapter to Demand Drafts drawn by one branch of a bank upon another, ensuring that collecting bankers get the same protection for DDs as they do for cheques.
Question 72
If an NEFT transaction cannot be credited to the beneficiary account (due to invalid account number, etc.), the destination bank must return the funds to the originating bank within:
RBI guidelines mandate that if the beneficiary account cannot be credited for any reason, the destination bank must return the transaction to the originating bank within 2 hours of the completion of the batch in which the transaction was processed (B+2).
Question 73
According to the BCSBI Code/RBI Guidelines, settlement of claims in respect of deceased depositors and release of payments to survivors/nominees should be made within a period not exceeding _____ from the date of receipt of the claim with all necessary documents.
To ensure timely service to the bereaved family, banks are mandated to settle claims in deceased accounts within 15 days of receiving the claim application complete in all respects. This applies to accounts with nomination/survivorship clauses as well as those without.
Question 74
Can a bank exercise its Right of Set-off against the contents of a Safe Deposit Locker for the recovery of dues from the hirer?
The Right of Set-off applies only to financial debts (money owed by bank vs money owed to bank). The contents of a locker are physical goods entrusted for safe custody (Lease/Bailment relationship), not a sum of money owed by the bank to the customer. Therefore, Set-off is legally impossible; the bank cannot just open the locker and take the contents.
Question 75
If a customer attempts to open an account but refuses to provide the required KYC documents, the bank should:
RBI Guidelines are strict: No account can be opened without proper KYC ("No KYC, No Account"). Furthermore, refusal to provide standard information or non-cooperation is a red flag for potential money laundering, warranting the bank to consider filing an STR with FIU-IND.
Question 76
Under Section 10 of the NI Act, "Payment in Due Course" requires payment to be made in accordance with the apparent tenor of the instrument, in good faith, and:
The definition of Payment in Due Course (Sec 10) has three pillars: 1. Payment according to apparent tenor. 2. Payment in good faith. 3. Payment without negligence to any person in possession thereof. If the bank is negligent (e.g., ignores a visible alteration), it is not Payment in Due Course and protection is lost.
Question 77
An Attachment Order from the Income Tax Department typically attaches:
Unlike a court Garnishee Order (which usually attaches only present balances), Income Tax Attachment Orders (under Sec 226(3) of IT Act) are generally "continuing" in nature. They bind the bank to remit any funds held *at that time* OR *subsequently held* for the assessee until the tax demand is met or the order is revoked.
Question 78
Which account allows Returning Indians (NRIs returning to India for permanent settlement) to hold their foreign earnings in foreign currency?
The Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) account is specifically designed for returning NRIs to park their foreign currency earnings (pension, savings abroad) without converting them to Rupees, protecting them from exchange rate risk. NRE/FCNR accounts must be closed/converted upon return.
Question 79
Under RBI guidelines for "Doorstep Banking" for Senior Citizens (>70 years) and Differently Abled persons, which of the following services is the bank mandated to provide?
To support vulnerable groups, RBI mandates banks to provide basic banking services at the doorstep for senior citizens over 70 and differently-abled persons. This includes pick-up of cash/instruments, delivery of cash, KYC documents pickup, and delivery of DDs/cheque books.
Question 80
An endorsement where the endorser signs his name and adds a direction to pay the amount to a specific person is called:
A "Full" or "Special" endorsement specifies the person to whom or to whose order the money is to be paid (e.g., "Pay to B or Order" signed A). This converts a bearer instrument back into an order instrument, adding security.
Question 81
Who among the following can be a Co-parcener in a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) governed by Mitakshara Law?
Post the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005, daughters have the same rights as sons and are considered Co-parceners by birth in their own right. Wives and daughters-in-law are members but not co-parceners (they cannot demand partition).
Question 82
What is the Limitation Period for a customer to file a suit for the recovery of money deposited in a Savings Bank Account?
Under Article 22 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the period is 3 years. Crucially, time starts running NOT from the deposit date, but from the date the customer makes a demand for payment and the bank refuses it. Until a demand is made, the limitation does not expire.
Question 83
In the Video Customer Identification Process (V-CIP), which of the following is a mandatory security requirement?
RBI guidelines strictly specify that the V-CIP must be operated by officials of the Regulated Entity (Bank) only. Business Correspondents (BCs) or Direct Selling Agents (DSAs) are NOT authorized to conduct the video interaction to ensure data security and accountability.
Question 84
While a blind person is legally competent to contract, banks usually take extra precautions. Which of the following is NOT a valid restriction/rule for a blind person's account?
This is incorrect. RBI has mandated that banking facilities including ATM/Debit Cards and Net Banking should be offered to visually impaired persons without discrimination. Banks must ensure ATMs are accessible (talking ATMs). Denying a card is a violation.
Question 85
A cheque becomes "Stale" and cannot be paid by the bank if it is presented after:
As per RBI directive (effective April 1, 2012), the validity period of Cheques, Drafts, Pay Orders, and Banker's Cheques is reduced from 6 months to 3 months from the date of the instrument.
Question 86
Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines "Bailment". In the context of a bank, which transaction creates a bailment?
Bailment involves the delivery of goods from one person to another for a specific purpose. In Safe Custody, the customer delivers the goods to the bank. In a Locker, there is no delivery of goods (the customer retains control), so it is Lease, not Bailment. FD is a debt.
Question 87
How frequently are NEFT batches settled currently (as of 24x7 operation)?
Since December 2019, NEFT operates on a 24x7x365 basis with half-hourly batches. There are 48 half-hourly batches every day. (Note: RTGS is real-time, NEFT is batch-wise).
Question 88
Each bank must have a Board-approved "Compensation Policy". This policy typically covers compensation for:
The Comprehensive Compensation Policy aims to cover various deficiencies in service, including delays in cheque collection, ATM failures, unauthorized debits, and payment of interest for delays in returns, ensuring customer rights are protected.
Question 89
Which section of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is relevant for banks regarding freezing of assets of designated terrorists?
Section 51A of UAPA empowers the Central Government to freeze, seize or attach funds and other financial assets or economic resources held by, on behalf of, or at the direction of any individual or entity listed as a terrorist.
Question 90
If a Principal grants a "Special Power of Attorney" to an agent, the agent's authority is:
A Special PoA is restricted to the specific act mentioned (e.g., selling a specific property or operating a specific account). It contrasts with a General PoA, which gives broader powers. The bank must verify the specific limits.
Question 91
A "Small Account" is initially valid for 12 months. It can be extended for another 12 months if:
A Small Account (opened without full KYC) can be extended for another 12 months if the customer provides proof that they have applied for any of the OVDs (like Voter ID, NREGA card, etc.) during the first 12 months.
Question 92
In which of the following scenarios is Clayton's Rule (First-In-First-Out appropriation) NOT applicable?
Clayton's Rule applies specifically to running accounts (like Cash Credit, Overdraft) where debits and credits are continuous. In a Term Loan, the account is not a running account; payments are appropriated towards interest first and then principal, not based on FIFO of debits.
Question 93
In a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) account, who has the implied authority to sign cheques and bind the family?
Only the Karta (Manager) has the implied authority to operate the account and bind the family/firm. Other coparceners can operate only if the Karta grants them a specific mandate/power of attorney.
Question 94
Which of the following alterations is allowed under the NI Act without the drawer's signature (i.e., it is not a material alteration)?
Section 125 of the NI Act permits a holder to convert a general crossing into a special crossing. This enhances security and is not considered a material alteration that voids the instrument.
Question 95
If a locker hirer defaults on rent payment for 3 consecutive years, what action can the bank take as per RBI guidelines?
The bank has the discretion to break open the locker after following due procedure (giving notice, allowing reasonable time). The contents must be inventoried in the presence of independent witnesses and kept in safe custody.
Question 96
A customer deposits money with a bank with specific instructions to use it for buying government bonds. If the bank fails to buy the bonds and the bank goes into liquidation, the customer is a:
Since the money was entrusted for a specific purpose, the bank holds it as a Trustee. In liquidation, trust money does not form part of the bank's general assets, so the customer has a preferential claim over general creditors.
Question 97
Under the "Combating of Financing of Terrorism" (CFT) guidelines, banks must screen their customer database against the list of designated individuals/entities circulated by:
Banks must ensure they do not have any accounts in the names of individuals/entities appearing in the lists of terrorists approved by the UN Security Council (e.g., Al-Qaida Sanctions List), as circulated by the RBI.
Question 98
Can a Partner in a partnership firm execute a Power of Attorney (PoA) authorizing a third party to operate the firm's bank account?
A partner acts as an agent for the firm. An agent cannot delegate his authority to another (sub-agent) unless expressly authorized. Therefore, a PoA for operating the firm's account requires the joint consent/signature of all partners.
Question 99
If a bank wrongfully dishonors a customer's cheque due to a clerical error, the bank is liable to compensate the customer for:
Under Section 31 of the NI Act, a banker is liable to compensate the drawer for any loss or damage caused by wrongful dishonor. This includes damages for injury to the customer's credit and reputation in the market.
Question 100
Can a minor be appointed as an Agent to operate a bank account on behalf of a Principal (Adult)?
Under Section 184 of the Contract Act, a minor can be an agent between the principal and third parties. The minor is not personally liable, but their acts bind the Principal. Banks usually discourage this due to risk.
Question 101
If a cheque is crossed "Account Payee Only", the collecting banker acts negligently if he:
An "Account Payee" crossing directs the collecting banker to credit the proceeds ONLY to the account of the payee named. If the banker collects it for someone else (an endorsee), they lose statutory protection under Section 131 because it is considered negligence.
Question 102
Which of the following is NOT considered an "Officially Valid Document" (OVD) for KYC, but is accepted as a "Deemed OVD" for low-risk customers if it contains the address?
The 6 core OVDs are Passport, Driving License, Voter ID, NREGA Card, Aadhaar, NPR Letter. Utility bills are "Simplified Measures" or Deemed OVDs allowed primarily for address proof for low-risk customers when OVD doesn't have the current address.
Question 103
If a Standing Instruction (SI) for payment of insurance premium fails due to insufficient funds in the account:
An SI creates an agency relationship where the bank agrees to pay "subject to availability of funds." If funds are insufficient, the bank is not obligated to pay or create an overdraft, and thus is not liable for the lapsed policy.
Question 104
Once a "Liquidator" is appointed for a company by the court, the powers of the Board of Directors regarding the bank account:
Upon the appointment of a Liquidator, the directors become functus officio (lose their office/powers). The bank must stop the operation of the account by directors and allow operations only by the Liquidator.
Question 105
In a "Simple Mortgage", the possession of the property remains with:
In a Simple Mortgage (Section 58(b) of Transfer of Property Act), the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the debt but does NOT deliver possession of the property to the mortgagee.
Question 106
If a banker pays a cheque before the date mentioned on it (Post-Dated Cheque), the payment is:
Payment in Due Course must be "in accordance with the apparent tenor". A post-dated cheque becomes payable only on or after the date on its face. Paying it earlier violates the tenor and is negligent, stripping the bank of statutory protection.
Question 107
The Goiporia Committee is associated with recommendations on:
The Goiporia Committee (1990) was a landmark committee that recommended time norms for various banking transactions and measures to improve customer service in banks.
Question 108
If neither the debtor nor the creditor makes an appropriation of payment, the rule in Clayton’s case applies to running accounts. For distinct debts, Section 61 of the Contract Act says the payment shall be applied to:
Where neither party appropriates, the law applies the payment to discharge debts in chronological order (oldest first), irrespective of whether they are time-barred or not.
Question 109
Records of the identity of clients (KYC documents) must be maintained for a period of ____ after the business relationship has ended.
PMLA rules mandate that identification records (KYC) must be preserved for 5 years from the date of cessation of the relationship with the client.
Question 110
Can a resident Indian holding a Power of Attorney for an NRE account holder repatriate funds outside India from that account?
A resident PoA holder in an NRE account can operate it for local payments in India. However, they are generally NOT allowed to repatriate funds abroad, except in very specific cases like remitting to the account holder himself.
Question 111
Endorsement "in blank" means:
An endorsement in blank (just the signature) converts an Order instrument into a Bearer instrument, meaning it can now be transferred by mere delivery.
Question 112
Can a Safe Deposit Locker be hired by a minor?
Banks typically do NOT allow lockers to be hired by minors (even with guardians) because a minor cannot be bound by the locker contract (lease agreement). Locker facility is for adults who can contract.
Question 113
For an Overdraft or Cash Credit account, the limitation period of 3 years is calculated from:
Every deposit (credit) by the borrower or debit (withdrawal) acts as an acknowledgment of the continuing relationship, resetting the limitation clock. Thus, it is 3 years from the last operation.
Question 114
In a banking environment, a "Data Warehouse" is primarily used for:
While the Core Banking System handles day-to-day transactions (OLTP), the Data Warehouse stores historical data from various sources to facilitate analysis, MIS reporting, and strategic decision-making (OLAP).
Question 115
When opening an account for a "Public Trust", in addition to the Trust Deed, the bank should ask for:
Public Trusts are required to be registered under the Public Trusts Act in many states. The Certificate of Registration issued by the Charity Commissioner is a key KYC document confirming the legal existence of the Public Trust.
Question 116
A "Paying Banker" is protected under Section 85(1) of the NI Act against a forged endorsement on an "Order Cheque" because:
A banker is bound to know the drawer's signature (their customer) but cannot possibly know the signatures of all payees and endorsees in the world. Hence, statutory protection is given if the endorsement appears regular.
Question 117
An "Actionable Claim" (like a fixed deposit or insurance policy) is transferred from one person to another by:
Under Section 130 of the Transfer of Property Act, the transfer of an actionable claim can only be effected by the execution of an instrument in writing signed by the transferor (Assignment).
Question 118
The Cash Transaction Report (CTR) for a month must be submitted to FIU-IND by the:
Banks must file the CTR for transactions occurring in a calendar month by the 15th day of the following month.
Question 119
Can a bank charge a fee for executing Standing Instructions?
Executing SIs involves administrative effort and liability. Banks are permitted to levy reasonable service charges for setting up and executing SIs, provided these are transparently communicated.
Question 120
The authority of an "Administrator" to deal with the deceased's estate commences from:
Unlike an Executor (whose authority starts from death), an Administrator is appointed by the Court. Therefore, their legal authority commences strictly from the date the Letter of Administration is granted.
Question 121
While assessing Working Capital requirements under the Turnover Method (Nayale Committee), banks typically assess the requirement at:
Under the Turnover Method (recommended for limits up to ?5 Crore), the working capital requirement is assessed at 25% of the projected turnover. Out of this, the bank provides 20% as limits, and the borrower brings in 5% as margin.
Question 122
Which of the following banks have a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC)?
While Domestic Commercial Banks and Foreign Banks (20+ branches) have a target of 40% of ANBC, RRBs and SFBs have a higher mandatory target of 75% of ANBC to ensure credit flow to underserved sectors.
Question 123
As per RBI guidelines on "Loan System for Delivery of Bank Credit", for borrowers with aggregate fund-based working capital limits of ?150 Crore and above, what is the minimum component that must be in the form of a Working Capital Loan (WCL)?
To enforce credit discipline, RBI mandates that for large borrowers (= ?150 Cr), at least 60% of the working capital limit must be utilized as a WCL (Demand Loan) and the balance 40% as Cash Credit (CC).
Question 124
Which type of mortgage can be created by simply delivering the title deeds of the property to the creditor in notified towns, without a written deed or registration?
Equitable Mortgage is created under Section 58(f) of the Transfer of Property Act by delivery of title deeds with an intent to create security. It is popular due to low cost (no registration needed) but can only be created in notified towns.
Question 125
An enterprise with an Investment in Plant and Machinery of ?8 Crore and Annual Turnover of ?45 Crore will be classified as:
Classification criteria for Small Enterprise: Investment = ?10 Cr AND Turnover = ?50 Cr. Since both conditions are met (8 < 10 and 45 < 50), it is a Small Enterprise.
Question 126
Under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme, the short-term credit limit for the first year is determined based on:
The KCC limit is scientific: It considers the Scale of Finance (fixed by District Level Technical Committee) multiplied by area, plus a 10% margin for household expenses and 20% for farm asset maintenance.
Question 127
How should a bank recognize income on a Non-Performing Asset (NPA)?
Income Recognition and Asset Classification (IRAC) norms state that income from NPAs is not recognized on an accrual basis but is booked as income only when it is actually received (Cash basis).
Question 128
Which of the following beneficiaries is NOT classified under "Weaker Sections" for Priority Sector Lending purposes?
"Weaker Sections" include small/marginal farmers, SC/STs, SHGs, distressed farmers, and artisans. Medium Enterprises are part of the MSME category but not the "Weaker Sections" sub-target.
Question 129
Which ratio is the primary indicator of a firm's long-term solvency and ability to meet long-term obligations?
The Debt-Equity Ratio (Total Debt / Shareholder's Equity) measures the leverage of a company. A lower ratio indicates higher solvency and financial stability in the long run.
Question 130
In a "Pledge", the possession of the goods is with the _____ and the ownership remains with the _____.
Pledge involves the bailment (delivery of possession) of goods as security for a debt. The Bank (Pledgee) holds possession, while the Borrower (Pledgor) retains ownership rights.
Question 131
Under DAY-NRLM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission), what is the maximum collateral-free loan amount for Self Help Groups (SHGs)?
RBI guidelines mandate that no collateral and no margin will be charged for loans to SHGs up to ?10 Lakh. Recently, the collateral-free limit for SHGs under NRLM was enhanced to ?20 Lakh.
Question 132
In a Letter of Credit (LC) transaction, who is the "Applicant"?
The LC is opened by the Issuing Bank at the request of the Buyer (Importer). Therefore, the Buyer is the Applicant who instructs the bank to open the credit in favor of the seller (Beneficiary).
Question 133
Before taking possession of the secured asset under the SARFAESI Act, the secured creditor must issue a demand notice to the borrower under Section 13(2), giving them how much time to discharge the liability?
Section 13(2) notice is the first step. It gives the borrower a period of 60 days to pay the dues. If they fail, the bank can take possession under Section 13(4).
Question 134
Loans to individuals for the purchase of a dwelling unit in metropolitan centers are eligible for Priority Sector classification if the loan amount does not exceed:
For Metros (population >= 10 lakh), the housing loan limit for PSL is ?35 Lakh (provided the total cost of the dwelling unit does not exceed ?45 Lakh). For other centers, the loan limit is ?25 Lakh.
Question 135
Can a Garnishee Order attach the unutilized portion of a Cash Credit/Overdraft limit?
A Garnishee Order attaches debts owed BY the bank TO the customer (credit balance). An unutilized CC/OD limit is a facility to borrow; it represents money the customer CAN borrow, not money the customer OWNS. Hence, it cannot be attached.
Question 136
The implementing agency for the Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) at the national level is:
KVIC is the single nodal agency at the national level for the PMEGP scheme. At the state level, it is implemented through State KVIC Directorates, State KVIBs, and DICs.
Question 137
An asset is classified as "Sub-standard" if it has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to:
After becoming NPA (overdue > 90 days), an asset enters the "Sub-standard" category. It stays in this category for up to 12 months. If it remains NPA beyond 12 months, it moves to "Doubtful" category.
Question 138
Hypothecation is defined under which Act?
Surprisingly, Hypothecation was not defined in Indian law until the SARFAESI Act, 2002 (Section 2(n)). It refers to a charge on movable property without delivery of possession.
Question 139
In "Consortium Lending", the bank that takes the largest share and leads the arrangement is called the:
The Lead Bank assesses the borrower's needs, appraises the project, and coordinates with other member banks for documentation and disbursement.
Question 140
A "Financial Guarantee" issued by a bank essentially secures:
Guarantees are of two types: Performance (ensuring work is done) and Financial (ensuring money is paid). A Financial Guarantee assures the beneficiary that the debt will be repaid if the borrower defaults.
Question 141
Loans to individuals for educational purposes, including vocational courses, are eligible for Priority Sector Lending up to:
Loans to individuals for educational purposes, including vocational courses, not exceeding ?20 lakh will be considered as eligible for priority sector classification.
Question 142
Banks can file an application for recovery of dues in the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) only if the debt amount due is not less than:
The pecuniary jurisdiction of DRTs applies to cases where the debt due to any bank or financial institution is ?20 Lakh or above.
Question 143
Assignment is the appropriate mode of creating a charge on which type of asset?
Assignment involves the transfer of rights to claim a debt or benefit. It is used for Actionable Claims like insurance policies and book debts. (Immovable = Mortgage; Goods = Pledge/Hypothecation).
Question 144
Which lending rate system replaced the Base Rate system for new loans to ensure better monetary transmission?
MCLR replaced Base Rate in 2016. Note: EBLR later replaced MCLR for retail/MSME loans in 2019, but MCLR specifically replaced Base Rate as the internal benchmark.
Question 145
Under the MSMED Act, 2006, if a buyer fails to make payment to a micro or small enterprise supplier within 45 days, they are liable to pay compound interest at:
This penal provision is designed to ensure timely payments to MSMEs. The interest is compounded with monthly rests at 3 times the Bank Rate.
Question 146
Farmers who repay their short-term crop loans promptly (up to ?3 Lakh) get an additional interest subvention of:
The standard interest subvention is 2%, making the effective rate 7%. Prompt repayment gets an additional 3% subvention, bringing the effective interest rate down to 4%.
Question 147
What is the provisioning requirement for the "Secured portion" of a loan classified as "Doubtful (Up to 1 year)"?
For Doubtful Assets (D1 - up to 1 year), the provision on the secured portion is 25%. For the unsecured portion, it is always 100%.
Question 148
In the "5 Cs of Credit", which "C" refers to the borrower's willingness to repay the loan and their reputation/integrity?
Character refers to the borrower's integrity and intent to repay. Capacity refers to ability (cash flow). Capital is their own contribution. Collateral is security. Conditions refer to economic factors.
Question 149
A Deferred Payment Guarantee (DPG) is typically used for:
DPG secures the payment of installments for capital goods purchased on credit. If the buyer defaults on an installment, the bank pays.
Question 150
Lok Adalats can handle bank recovery cases where the amount involved is up to:
Lok Adalats are an effective forum for settling smaller NPA cases (suit-filed or pre-litigation) up to a ceiling of ?20 Lakh, offering a quick and low-cost resolution.
Question 151
To calculate the "Adjusted Net Bank Credit" (ANBC) for Priority Sector targets, which of the following is ADDED to the Net Bank Credit (NBC)?
ANBC is defined as Net Bank Credit (NBC) plus investments made by banks in non-SLR bonds held in the HTM category, plus other investments eligible to be treated as priority sector. This ensures that banks don't shift assets to investments to lower their lending targets.
Question 152
Under DAY-NULM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Urban Livelihoods Mission), what is the maximum loan subsidy provided on interest for Self-Employment Programme (SEP) loans?
Under DAY-NULM, an interest subsidy is provided on loans to the urban poor for setting up individual or group enterprises. The subsidy is the amount of interest charged by the bank over and above 7% per annum.
Question 153
Is "Udyam Registration" mandatory for MSMEs to avail benefits under Priority Sector Lending?
For classification as MSME and to avail benefits under the PSL norms (and other government schemes), obtaining Udyam Registration is mandatory. Without it, the unit cannot be classified as MSME by the bank.
Question 154
The validity of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) limit is generally for:
The KCC limit is sanctioned for a period of 5 years, subject to an annual review. The cardholder can draw funds within this limit as per their cropping pattern and requirements.
Question 155
Under "Social Infrastructure", bank loans up to a limit of _____ per borrower for building schools, drinking water facilities, and sanitation facilities are eligible for PSL.
Loans up to ?5 crore per borrower for setting up schools, drinking water facilities, and sanitation facilities in Tier II to Tier VI centers are classified as Priority Sector Lending.
Question 156
Which type of charge is most suitable for a company's "Book Debts" (Receivables)?
Book debts are movable current assets. Since possession cannot be handed over to the bank (unlike pledge), a charge is created by way of Hypothecation of book debts. (Assignment is also a legal mode, but Hypothecation is the common banking practice for working capital limits against receivables).
Question 157
Banks lend to Self Help Groups (SHGs) based on the group's corpus. What is the typical ratio of Loan to Corpus for a mature SHG (2+ years old)?
According to NABARD/RBI guidelines, the loan amount can be 4 times the corpus for the first dose, rising to 8 times (or ?20 Lakh, whichever is higher) for mature SHGs with a good repayment track record.
Question 158
What is the maximum credit facility amount covered under the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme (Revised 2023)?
The coverage limit under CGTMSE was enhanced from ?2 Crore to ?5 Crore (?500 Lakh) to encourage lending to the MSE sector without collateral.
Question 159
Why do banks obtain a "Letter of Continuity" for Cash Credit accounts?
In a running account (CC/OD), credits reduce the debit balance. Without a Letter of Continuity, these credits could be legally argued to have discharged the original DP Note. This letter confirms that the security continues to cover the fluctuating balance.
Question 160
For Domestic Commercial Banks, Export Credit is eligible for Priority Sector classification only if:
For Domestic Banks, "Export Credit" is allowed as PSL only up to 2% of ANBC or CEOBE (Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure), whichever is higher. This is much lower than the limit for Foreign Banks.
Question 161
A "Sale Deed" requires compulsory registration under the Registration Act, 1908 if the value of the immovable property is:
Section 17 of the Registration Act mandates that any non-testamentary instrument transferring interest in immovable property of value ?100 or upwards must be registered to be legally valid.
Question 162
Loans under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) are classified into Shishu, Kishore, and Tarun. What is the loan limit for the "Kishore" category?
The categories are: Shishu (up to ?50k), Kishore (> ?50k to ?5 Lakh), and Tarun (> ?5 Lakh to ?10 Lakh). This classification targets different stages of business growth.
Question 163
Under the Prudential Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets, an account is classified as "SMA-1" if the principal or interest payment is overdue for:
Special Mention Accounts (SMA) categorization helps in early recognition of stress. SMA-0 (1-30 days), SMA-1 (31-60 days) , and SMA-2 (61-90 days).
Question 164
While assessing the limit for Letter of Credit (LC), which factor is the most critical determinant?
The LC limit is non-fund based. It depends on the estimated annual purchase of material (consumption) and the time taken from placing the order to the receipt of goods/retirement of bills (Lead Time/Usance period).
Question 165
Loans for "Agriculture Infrastructure" (like storage godowns, soil conservation) are eligible for PSL up to an aggregate sanctioned limit of:
Under Priority Sector norms, loans for agriculture infrastructure (warehousing, market yards, cold chains) are capped at ?100 crore per borrower from the banking system.
Question 166
What is the limitation period for filing a suit for the enforcement of a Mortgage (Foreclosure or Sale of mortgaged property)?
Article 62 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides a limitation period of 12 years for suits relating to payment of money secured by a mortgage or charge upon immovable property, calculated from when the money becomes due.
Question 167
Short Review of working capital limits is typically done:
While a full renewal/assessment is annual, banks conduct Short Reviews (Quarterly or Half-yearly) to monitor the account's performance and ensure compliance with terms, based on QIS statements.
Question 168
"Packing Credit" is a type of Pre-shipment Finance given to exporters for:
Packing Credit is a working capital advance provided *before* shipment to enable the exporter to procure raw materials, manufacture, and pack the goods based on a confirmed export order.
Question 169
The "Udyam Registration Certificate" (URC) is valid for:
Udyam Registration is a one-time registration process. The certificate issued is valid for a lifetime, provided the enterprise updates its details annually.
Question 170
For "Loss Assets", the provisioning requirement is:
A Loss Asset is one where loss has been identified by the bank or auditors and the asset is considered uncollectible. The entire amount (100%) must be provided for, irrespective of any collateral (since its value is negligible).
Question 171
The "Stock Statement" submitted by a borrower is a key tool for monitoring which type of facility?
In Cash Credit, the Drawing Power (DP) is calculated based on the value of stocks and receivables declared in the monthly Stock Statement. It ensures the loan is backed by sufficient current assets.
Question 172
The "Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme" (CLSS) is a component of which government scheme?
CLSS provides interest subsidy on housing loans to eligible beneficiaries (EWS/LIG/MIG) under the PMAY (Urban) mission to promote affordable housing.
Question 173
Lok Adalats have jurisdiction to settle banking disputes where the amount involved is:
For bank recovery cases, the monetary ceiling for Lok Adalat jurisdiction is ?20 Lakh . Cases above this limit usually go to DRT.
Question 174
A "Negative Lien" is an undertaking by the borrower that:
Negative Lien is a negative covenant. It does not create a charge for the bank but prevents the borrower from pledging the assets to someone else, keeping them free for the bank if needed later.
Question 175
Loans to Startups (as defined by Ministry of Commerce) are eligible for Priority Sector Lending up to:
Bank loans up to ?50 crore to Startups (as per definition of Ministry of Commerce and Industry) are eligible for finance under the priority sector.
Question 176
A loan account classified as NPA can be upgraded to "Standard" asset category only if:
RBI norms specify that an NPA account can be upgraded to Standard only when the entire overdue interest and principal are paid, bringing the account fully current.
Question 177
A "Bridge Loan" is sanctioned to:
Bridge loans are temporary, short-term loans meant to tide over the period until the long-term funding (like IPO proceeds or Term Loan disbursement) is received.
Question 178
An "Acknowledgment of Debt" (AOD) in writing obtained from the borrower before the expiry of the limitation period:
Under Section 18 of the Limitation Act, a written acknowledgment of liability signed by the borrower before the expiration of the prescribed period starts a fresh period of limitation from the time of signing.
Question 179
The "Debt Service Coverage Ratio" (DSCR) is used to assess the borrower's ability to:
DSCR measures the cash flow available to pay current debt obligations (Interest + Principal). DSCR < 1 means negative cash flow. Banks typically look for DSCR > 1.5 or 2 for Term Loans.
Question 180
RBI has mandated banks not to accept collateral security for loans to MSE units up to:
Banks are mandated not to accept collateral security in the case of loans up to ?10 lakh extended to units in the MSE sector. For loans above ?10 lakh up to ?2 crore, banks can use the CGTMSE guarantee cover instead of collateral.
Question 181
Under the Tandon Committee recommendations (Method II of lending), the Maximum Permissible Bank Finance (MPBF) for working capital is calculated as:
Under Method II (which is more conservative and ensures a higher current ratio of 1.33:1), the borrower must finance 25% of the *Total Current Assets* from long-term sources. Hence, MPBF = (0.75 * CA) - CL.
Question 182
A borrower is classified as a "Wilful Defaulter" if they have defaulted in meeting their repayment obligations to the lender AND:
Wilful default implies deliberate non-payment despite having the capacity to pay, diverting funds for other uses, or siphoning off funds without creating assets. Genuine business failure is not wilful default.
Question 183
Any person aggrieved by the measures taken by a secured creditor under Section 13(4) of the SARFAESI Act can file an appeal to the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) within:
Under Section 17 of the SARFAESI Act, an appeal against the bank's enforcement action (like taking possession) must be filed with the DRT within 45 days from the date on which such measure was taken.
Question 184
Factoring transactions "with recourse" basis for MSMEs are eligible for Priority Sector classification. What does "with recourse" mean here?
In "With Recourse" factoring, the factor advances money against invoices but does not indemnify the seller against bad debts. If the customer fails to pay, the factor reclaims the advance from the seller.
Question 185
To create a valid Equitable Mortgage (Mortgage by Deposit of Title Deeds), which of the following is essential?
The critical condition under Section 58(f) of the Transfer of Property Act is that the act of delivery of title deeds must take place in a town notified by the State Government. The property itself can be located anywhere in India.
Question 186
The "Break-Even Point" (BEP) analysis is most critical for the appraisal of:
BEP analysis determines the level of sales volume at which the project makes neither profit nor loss (covers all costs). It assesses the viability and risk of a long-term project, making it crucial for Term Loan appraisal.
Question 187
The "Stand Up India" scheme targets which specific beneficiary groups?
Stand Up India facilitates bank loans between ?10 lakh and ?1 crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise.
Question 188
A "Letter of Comfort" is typically issued by:
It is a document issued by a parent company (or bank) to a lender, indicating its support for a subsidiary's loan obligations, but it falls short of a legally binding financial guarantee.
Question 189
Is there any ceiling on the expenses for studies in India or abroad for a loan to be classified as Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?
Previously, there were expense ceilings. Currently, under PSL norms, there is no cap on the total cost of education. Only the loan amount eligible for PSL classification is capped at ?20 Lakh.
Question 190
Does the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) have the power to pass an interim order of injunction/stay against the borrower?
The DRT Act empowers the Tribunal to pass interim orders (like attachment before judgment or injunction) to protect the interests of the bank and prevent the borrower from selling assets during the pendency of the case.
Question 191
On the TReDS platform, once an invoice is financed by a financier, the obligation to pay on the due date lies with:
Financing on TReDS is "without recourse" to the seller. Once financed, the debt is assigned to the financier, and the Corporate Buyer is legally obligated to pay the financier on the due date.
Question 192
Can a bank convert a "Hypothecation" charge into a "Pledge" charge?
Hypothecation agreements typically contain a clause empowering the bank to take possession of the goods in case of default. Once possession is taken, the charge converts from Hypothecation to Pledge.
Question 193
Banks are required to charge interest on loans at what periodicity?
As per RBI directives, interest on loans should be charged at quarterly or shorter rests (like monthly). Charging interest at longer rests (like yearly) is not permitted as it reduces the effective yield.
Question 194
For Foreign Banks with less than 20 branches, which specific sub-target under Priority Sector Lending is NOT applicable?
Foreign banks with less than 20 branches have a total target of 40% of ANBC, but they are exempted from specific sub-targets for Agriculture and Weaker Sections. They can achieve their target largely through Export Credit.
Question 195
A "Technical Write-off" of an NPA loan implies:
Technical Write-off is an accounting entry to clean the balance sheet and reduce tax liability. It does NOT mean waiver of the debt; the bank continues its recovery efforts against the borrower.
Question 196
Before extending a bank loan to an SHG, the bank conducts a grading exercise. Which of the following is a key parameter for SHG grading?
The critical parameters for SHG grading (Panchasutra) are: Regular Meetings, Regular Savings, Regular Internal Lending, Regular Recoveries, and Maintenance of Books of Accounts.
Question 197
Which document is essential for assessing the technical feasibility of a project for a Term Loan?
A Techno-Economic Viability (TEV) study or Project Report details the technical aspects (technology, location, machinery) and economic viability, crucial for long-term funding decisions.
Question 198
The limitation period for filing a suit on a Demand Promissory Note (DP Note) is:
For a DP Note (payable on demand), the limitation is 3 years from the date of the note , not from the date of demand (Article 35, Limitation Act).
Question 199
When a Life Insurance Policy is assigned to a bank as security, notice of assignment must be given to:
Under Section 38 of the Insurance Act, 1938, notice of assignment must be served to the Insurer to register the bank's interest. Without this, the assignment is not binding on the Insurer.
Question 200
When a bank takes over a loan from another bank, it must obtain:
For a smooth takeover, the new bank needs the exact outstanding amount (Foreclosure letter) and details of security documents to ensure proper transfer of liability and collateral.
Question 201
SARFAESI Act proceedings cannot be initiated if the outstanding dues are less than:
SARFAESI action cannot be taken if the amount due is less than ?1 Lakh OR if the remaining debt is less than 20% of the original principal and interest (Section 31(j)). This prevents misuse for small balances.
Question 202
The "Cluster Approach" in MSME financing aims to:
Cluster-based financing allows banks to assess risks better, reduce transaction costs, and provide tailored services to similar units located in a geographical cluster (e.g., Tirupur textile cluster).
Question 203
For housing loans up to ?30 Lakh, the maximum Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio permitted by RBI is:
To promote affordable housing, RBI allows an LTV ratio of up to 90% for loans up to ?30 Lakh. For loans between ?30L-?75L, it is 80%.
Question 204
In a consortium arrangement, the "Pari-Passu" charge implies that:
Pari-Passu means "on equal footing". It ensures that in case of liquidation or asset sale, all member banks share the proceeds proportionally to their dues, without any priority to one over the other.
Question 205
For matters falling under the jurisdiction of the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT), the jurisdiction of Civil Courts is:
The RDDBFI Act bars Civil Courts from entertaining any matter which the DRT is empowered to determine, to ensure speedy recovery through the specialized tribunal.
Question 206
In the PMEGP scheme, the margin money subsidy received from the government is kept in a separate account known as:
The subsidy is kept in a TDR in the name of the beneficiary for a lock-in period of 3 years. It is adjusted against the loan only after successful verification of the unit after 3 years.
Question 207
If the Sanctioned Limit of a CC account is ?10 Lakh and the Drawing Power (DP) calculated based on stock is ?8 Lakh, the borrower can withdraw up to:
Availability of funds is the lower of the Sanctioned Limit or the Drawing Power. Since DP (backed by assets) is lower, the borrower can only draw up to ?8 Lakh.
Question 208
A "Particular Lien" allows the creditor to retain goods:
Particular Lien (e.g., repairer's lien) is restricted to the specific goods on which labor/skill was exercised, unlike Banker's General Lien which extends to general balance.
Question 209
Bank credit to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) for on-lending to Agriculture is eligible for Priority Sector classification up to:
Bank credit to NBFCs (excluding MFIs) for on-lending is allowed under PSL up to an overall cap of 5% of the individual bank's total priority sector lending.
Question 210
The "Revolving Fund" provided to SHGs under NRLM is primarily meant to:
Revolving Fund (RF) is a seed capital given to SHGs to supplement their own savings, allowing them to lend more internally and build financial discipline before accessing larger bank loans.
Question 211
In the context of DAY-NRLM, the "Community Investment Support Fund" (CISF) is provided to:
CISF is a corpus fund provided to community institutions like CLFs or VOs (not directly to SHGs) to be used for lending to SHGs for their livelihood plans and socio-economic development.
Question 212
Once a Recovery Certificate is issued by the Presiding Officer of a DRT, who is responsible for its execution (recovery of money)?
The Recovery Officer (RO) is the statutory authority within the DRT framework empowered to execute the Recovery Certificate by attaching and selling the debtor's assets.
Question 213
For Renewable Energy projects, bank loans up to a limit of _____ are eligible for Priority Sector classification.
Loans up to ?30 crore to borrowers for purposes like solar based power generators, biomass-based power generators, wind mills, micro-hydel plants, etc., are eligible for PSL.
Question 214
The "Working Capital Gap" (WCG) is defined as:
WCG represents the portion of current assets that needs to be financed. It is calculated by subtracting "Other Current Liabilities" (excluding bank borrowings) from Total Current Assets. The bank finances a part of this gap.
Question 215
Can a company grant a loan against the security of its own shares?
A public company is strictly prohibited from giving any financial assistance for the purchase of its own shares or lending against the security of its own shares (Buy-back is a separate process). Banks also cannot lend against their own shares (BR Act Sec 20).
Question 216
RBI guidelines on "Penal Charges" (effective 2024) state that penalty for non-compliance with loan terms should be levied as:
RBI has directed that penalties should be treated as "Penal Charges" and not "Penal Interest" that gets added to the interest rate and capitalized. This ensures fairness and prevents capitalization of penal components.
Question 217
Any dispute regarding delayed payment to MSMEs can be referred to:
The MSMED Act establishes the MSEFC to arbitrate and settle disputes related to delayed payments. MSEFC awards are binding and have the effect of a court decree.
Question 218
Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) expire on:
PSLCs are valid only for the financial year in which they are traded. Their validity expires on March 31st, and banks must buy fresh certificates for the next year if shortfalls persist.
Question 219
Banks are required to report credit information, including classification of an account as SMA (Special Mention Account), to the Central Repository of Information on Large Credits (CRILC) for exposures of:
CRILC reporting is mandatory for all borrowers having aggregate fund-based and non-fund-based exposure of ?5 Crore and above. This helps in early stress detection.
Question 220
Under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban), the house constructed/acquired with central assistance must be in the name of:
PMAY mandates female ownership (sole or joint) to promote women empowerment. The house must be registered in the name of the female head or jointly with the male head.
Question 221
In Project Finance, "Debt Service Reserve Account" (DSRA) is created to:
DSRA typically holds an amount equal to 3-6 months of debt service obligations (Interest + Principal). It acts as a safety buffer to ensure timely repayment even if project cash flows are temporarily disrupted.
Question 222
The limitation period for filing a suit against a Guarantor is 3 years from:
For a continuing guarantee, the liability arises only when the guarantee is invoked. The limitation period starts running from the date the bank issues a demand notice to the guarantor invoking the guarantee.
Question 223
Which of the following cannot be subject to a Lien?
Goods left for safe custody are entrusted for a specific purpose, making the bank a Bailee. This specific purpose overrides the general lien. A bank cannot exercise lien over items in safe custody or lockers.
Question 224
If a beneficiary invokes a Bank Guarantee (BG) properly within the validity period, the bank must pay:
A Bank Guarantee is an independent contract. The bank is obligated to pay upon proper invocation "without demur," irrespective of underlying disputes between the parties. The bank is dealing with documents, not goods or disputes.
Question 225
Which of the following is NOT considered a Priority Sector category?
Priority Sector includes Agriculture, MSME, Export Credit, Education, Housing, Social Infrastructure, Renewable Energy, and Others (Weaker Sections). CSR loans to corporates are not part of this.
Question 226
For the purpose of MSME classification, which component is EXCLUDED from the calculation of "Turnover"?
To encourage exports, the government has mandated that "Exports of goods or services or both" shall be excluded while calculating the turnover for MSME classification purposes.
Question 227
If a standard asset is restructured, its classification generally changes to:
Upon restructuring (changing terms due to financial difficulty), a standard asset is immediately downgraded to Sub-standard . It can be upgraded to Standard only after satisfactory performance during the "specified period" (usually 1 year).
Question 228
In "Fund Flow Analysis", which of the following is a "Source" of funds?
A decrease in assets (like selling stock or collecting debtors) releases cash, so it is a Source of funds. An increase in assets consumes cash (Use).
Question 229
Under the SARFAESI Act, can a bank enforce security interest on "Hypothecated" goods without court intervention?
The SARFAESI Act definition of "Security Interest" includes hypothecation. Banks can take possession of hypothecated movables (like vehicles, stock) directly after issuing the Section 13(2) notice and waiting for 60 days.
Question 230
RBI has mandated that banks cannot charge foreclosure charges/pre-payment penalties on floating rate term loans sanctioned to:
To protect consumers, banks are prohibited from levying foreclosure charges on floating rate term loans sanctioned to individual borrowers for non-business purposes (e.g., Home Loans, Auto Loans).
Question 231
Under DAY-NRLM, "Community Resource Persons" (CRPs) are:
CRPs are community members (usually women from successful SHGs) who provide support to new groups, driving the community-driven implementation model of NRLM.
Question 232
Loans for setting up "Agri-Clinics and Agri-Business Centers" (ACABC) fall under which category of Priority Sector?
ACABC loans are classified under Ancillary Activities within the Agriculture sector, as they provide professional extension services to farmers.
Question 233
Registration of charge with the Registrar of Companies (RoC) is mandatory for which of the following created by a company?
Under Section 77 of the Companies Act, 2013, charges on a company's assets (movable or immovable) must be registered with RoC. However, Pledge is exempted from this requirement. Hypothecation and Mortgage charges must be registered.
Question 234
If the interest billed on March 31 is not paid, the account becomes NPA on:
An account becomes NPA if interest/principal remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days. If unpaid on March 31, the 90-day period ends on June 29. It becomes NPA on June 30 (91st day).
Question 235
If a borrower exceeds the Sanctioned Limit in a Cash Credit account temporarily, the excess amount is called:
Banks may allow borrowers to draw beyond the limit for urgent needs. This is known as a Temporary Overdraft (TOD) or Ad-hoc limit, usually charged at a higher interest rate.
Question 236
A "Pawnee" (Pledgee) has the right to sell the pledged goods:
Under Section 176 of the Contract Act, if the Pawnor defaults, the Pawnee may sell the thing pledged on giving the Pawnor reasonable notice of the sale . No court order is needed.
Question 237
The "Internal Rate of Return" (IRR) of a project is the discount rate at which:
IRR is the break-even discount rate that equates the present value of cash inflows with the present value of cash outflows (NPV = 0). If IRR > Cost of Capital, the project is viable.
Question 238
For opening a savings account of an SHG, what are the KYC requirements?
To simplify financial inclusion, RBI guidelines state that KYC verification of only the authorized office bearers (representatives) is sufficient to open an SHG account. KYC of all members is not needed.
Question 239
What is the PSL loan limit for individual households for renewable energy purposes (e.g., rooftop solar)?
While the limit for firms/borrowers is ?30 Crore, for individual households , the loan limit for renewable energy purposes is capped at ?10 Lakh per borrower.
Question 240
After taking possession of the secured asset under SARFAESI, how much notice period must the bank give to the borrower before selling the asset?
Under the Security Interest (Enforcement) Rules, the authorized officer must serve a 30-day notice to the borrower informing them of the sale of the immovable property.
Question 241
Which network topology provides the highest level of redundancy and reliability for critical banking servers, where every node is connected to every other node?
In a Full Mesh Topology, every device has a dedicated point-to-point link to every other device. If one link fails, data can take an alternative path, ensuring zero downtime for critical systems.
Question 242
In a Core Banking Solution (CBS), what is the primary function of the "Parameter File"?
Parameter files act as the rulebook for the CBS. Changes in interest rates or product features are made here without altering the source code, allowing flexibility.
Question 243
Under the Cheque Truncation System (CTS-2010), which of the following is NOT a mandatory security feature?
While some banks add QR codes, it is not a mandatory standard feature prescribed under CTS-2010 standards (unlike Void Pantograph, UV Logo, and Watermark).
Question 244
A "Brown Label ATM" is one where:
In Brown Label ATMs, the machine and lease are owned by a third party, but the branding and cash handling are done by the sponsor bank. (White Label ATMs are fully non-bank owned).
Question 245
Which unique code is essential for mapping a customer's bank account to their Aadhaar number for AePS transactions?
The IIN is a 6-digit number issued by NPCI that identifies the bank to which the customer's Aadhaar is linked, enabling Aadhaar-based routing.
Question 246
INFINET (Indian Financial Network) is a Closed User Group (CUG) network mainly used for:
INFINET is the communication backbone for the Indian Banking and Financial Sector, managed by IDRBT. It secures critical inter-bank applications like RTGS, NEFT, and NDS.
Question 247
Which technology enables "Smart Contracts" that self-execute when conditions are met?
Blockchain (Distributed Ledger Technology) allows for programmable contracts (Smart Contracts) that automatically execute, enforce, and verify the terms of an agreement without intermediaries.
Question 248
In the context of cybersecurity, "Phishing" refers to:
Phishing typically uses spoofed emails or fake websites to trick users into revealing credentials. It is a "Social Engineering" attack.
Question 249
What is the maximum transaction limit per day for UPI (Unified Payments Interface) for normal transactions (as of standard NPCI guidelines)?
The standard UPI limit is ?1 Lakh per day. (Note: For specific categories like IPOs, Retail Direct Scheme, and Medical/Education, the limit has been enhanced to ?5 Lakh, but the general limit remains ?1 Lakh).
Question 250
What is "Day End Process" (EOD) in a CBS system?
EOD is a critical batch process that runs at the end of the business day to ensure all transactions are posted, accounts balanced, and system date is moved to the next working day.
Question 251
In the context of RTGS, what does "STP" stand for?
STP means the payment message flows from the remitting bank to the RBI and then to the beneficiary bank automatically without any manual intervention, ensuring speed and accuracy.
Question 252
Which of the following is a "Card Not Present" (CNP) transaction?
In online transactions, the physical card is not presented to a merchant. Authentication relies on details (Card No, CVV, Expiry) and 2FA (OTP), making it a CNP transaction.
Question 253
Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) requires a user to provide two out of three types of credentials. Which is NOT one of them?
2FA combines: 1. Knowledge (PIN/Password), 2. Possession (Card/Token/Phone), 3. Inherence (Fingerprint/Iris). "Desire" is not an authentication factor.
Question 254
The "Bharat Bill Payment System" (BBPS) is an integrated bill payment system offering interoperable bill payment service. Who operates BBPS?
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) functions as the Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit (BBPCU) responsible for setting standards and operating the BBPS.
Question 255
Which protocol is standard for secure communication over a computer network (like internet banking)?
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) uses TLS/SSL encryption to secure the data transferred between the user's browser and the bank's server, preventing eavesdropping.
Question 256
Artificial Intelligence (AI) in banking is predominantly used for:
AI algorithms analyze vast data for patterns (Fraud Detection), interact with customers (Chatbots), and assess risk profiles (Credit Scoring) efficiently.
Question 257
Positive Pay System involves re-confirming key details of large value cheques. What is the threshold above which banks may make it mandatory?
While the facility is available for cheques of ?50,000 and above, banks have the discretion to make it mandatory for cheques for amounts of ?5 Lakh and above to prevent high-value fraud.
Question 258
Which identifier is unique to every customer in a CBS system and links all their accounts?
The Customer Information File (CIF) or Customer ID is the unique key assigned to a customer. Multiple accounts (Savings, Loan, FD) are linked to this single CIF to provide a 360-view of the customer relationship.
Question 259
What is "Skimming" in the context of ATM/Card security?
Skimming involves placing a discreet device over the card slot to read the magnetic stripe data, which is then used to clone the card for fraudulent use.
Question 260
Which entity regulates the "Prepaid Payment Instruments" (PPIs) like Mobile Wallets in India?
The Reserve Bank of India regulates PPIs under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Issuers must obtain authorization from RBI.
Question 261
A "Trojan Horse" in computer security is:
Like the mythical wooden horse, a Trojan appears useful/harmless to trick the user into installing it, after which it executes malicious code (stealing data, creating backdoors).
Question 262
What is the primary purpose of a "Firewall" in a banking network?
A firewall acts as a barrier between a trusted internal network and untrusted external networks (internet), blocking unauthorized access while permitting legitimate traffic.
Question 263
In database terms, what is "Data Integrity"?
Data integrity ensures that data remains unaltered during storage, transmission, and processing, which is vital for banking financial records.
Question 264
What is the maximum transaction limit for IMPS (Immediate Payment Service) as per current NPCI guidelines?
The limit for IMPS transactions was enhanced from ?2 Lakh to ?5 Lakh to facilitate larger instant transfers.
Question 265
Which banking channel typically has the lowest cost per transaction for the bank?
Digital channels (Internet/Mobile) have negligible marginal costs compared to physical infrastructure (Branch/ATM) or human-assisted channels.
Question 266
What is the main difference between Symmetric and Asymmetric Encryption?
Asymmetric encryption (Public Key Infrastructure) is crucial for digital banking security (like SSL/TLS) because it allows secure exchange of data without sharing the private secret key.
Question 267
e-NACH (Electronic NACH) mandate authentication is primarily done using:
e-NACH reduces the turnaround time for mandate registration by using electronic authentication via Netbanking or Debit Card, replacing physical paper mandates.
Question 268
Why is "Batch Processing" used for interest application in CBS?
Interest calculation for millions of accounts is resource-intensive. Batch processing runs this as a background job (usually at night) to avoid slowing down the system during banking hours.
Question 269
Video Customer Identification Process (V-CIP) is a method of:
V-CIP uses video chat and geotagging to verify the customer remotely. RBI treats it as equivalent to physical KYC, allowing full account functionality.
Question 270
UPI LITE is an on-device wallet feature designed for:
UPI LITE allows users to make small value transactions (up to ?500) without entering a UPI PIN, improving success rates and reducing load on the core banking system.
Question 271
Most modern Core Banking Solutions (CBS) are built on "Service-Oriented Architecture" (SOA). What is the primary advantage of SOA?
Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) breaks down banking functions into distinct, self-contained units ("services") like account validation, interest calculation, etc. These services can be reused across different channels (Mobile, ATM, Net Banking), reducing development time for new products and ensuring consistency across the bank's technology ecosystem.
Question 272
The global financial messaging standard "ISO 20022", which SWIFT and RTGS systems are migrating to, primarily enables:
ISO 20022 uses the MX message format (based on XML), which carries much more data than the older MT format. This "rich data" allows banks to transmit detailed remittance information, improve anti-money laundering (AML) screening, and automate reconciliation processes, significantly reducing errors in cross-border payments.
Question 273
In the context of "UPI AutoPay" for recurring payments, what is the transaction limit up to which the UPI PIN is NOT required for execution (after the mandate is set)?
Initially set at ?5,000, the RBI enhanced the limit for e-mandates on cards and UPI for recurring payments (like subscriptions, insurance premiums) to ?15,000 without the need for Additional Factor of Authentication (AFA/PIN) during the transaction execution, improving convenience for users.
Question 274
How does "Pharming" differ from "Phishing"?
Pharming is more dangerous because it manipulates the DNS (Domain Name System) server or the user's host file. Even if the user types the correct website address (e.g., www.bank.com), they are redirected to a fraudulent site without clicking any suspicious link, making it harder to detect than Phishing.
Question 275
Contactless Cards use "NFC" technology for transactions. What does NFC stand for and what is the typical range?
NFC (Near Field Communication) is a short-range wireless connectivity standard. It allows two devices (the card and the POS terminal) to communicate when they are brought within a few centimeters (typically < 4 cm) of each other, enabling "Tap and Pay".
Question 276
In the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), the entity that onboards the Biller is known as:
BBPS has a tiered structure. The Biller Operating Unit (BOU) is the entity responsible for onboarding billers (like electricity boards, telecom companies) into the BBPS ecosystem. The Customer Operating Unit (COU) interacts with the customer (payer).
Question 277
What is the difference between "Data Warehousing" and "Data Mining" in banking?
A Data Warehouse acts as a central repository of integrated historical data. Data Mining uses algorithms on this warehoused data to discover hidden patterns, correlations, and insights (e.g., predicting which customers are likely to default or identifying cross-selling opportunities).
Question 278
In Cloud Computing, "SaaS" stands for:
SaaS is a cloud model where software applications are hosted by a vendor and made available to customers over the internet (e.g., Google Drive, CRM software), eliminating the need for banks to install and maintain the software locally.
Question 279
A "Distributed Denial of Service" (DDoS) attack differs from a simple DoS attack because:
In a DDoS attack, the traffic comes from hundreds or thousands of sources (zombie computers/bots), making it nearly impossible to stop the attack simply by blocking a single IP address. This makes DDoS much more destructive and harder to mitigate than simple DoS.
Question 280
As per RBI guidelines on "Card-on-File Tokenization" (CoFT), who is authorized to save the actual Card details?
To enhance security, RBI mandated that merchants and payment aggregators cannot save actual card details (Card-on-File). They must use "Tokens" generated by the Card Network/Issuer. Only the Issuer and Network can store the real data.
Question 281
RuPay is India's indigenous card scheme. It was launched by:
NPCI launched RuPay to provide a domestic, cost-effective alternative to international card schemes like Visa and Mastercard, reducing the reliance on cross-border payment processing.
Question 282
In a "Star Topology" network, if the central hub fails:
In Star Topology, all nodes connect directly to a central device (hub/switch). It is a single point of failure; if the hub goes down, communication between all connected nodes stops.
Question 283
What is the difference between "NACH Credit" and "NACH Debit"?
NACH Credit is a "Push" system used to distribute funds to many beneficiaries (One-to-Many) like subsidies or salaries. NACH Debit is a "Pull" system used to collect funds from many payers (Many-to-One) like utility bills or loan repayments.
Question 284
The "Zero Trust" security model in banking IT infrastructure is based on the principle:
Zero Trust assumes that threats exist both inside and outside the network. It requires strict identity verification for every person and device trying to access resources, regardless of whether they are sitting within the network perimeter or outside.
Question 285
The recent "PPI interoperability through UPI" allows customers to:
This feature allows Full-KYC Wallet users to scan any standard UPI QR code of a merchant and pay using their wallet balance, breaking the closed-loop restriction of wallets.
Question 286
What is the role of a "Delivery Channel Interface" in a CBS?
The Delivery Channel Interface allows transactions initiated at various touchpoints (ATMs, Phones) to be routed to the Core Banking System for processing and response.
Question 287
As per RBI Digital Lending Guidelines, a "Lending Service Provider" (LSP) is:
LSPs act as the interface for digital loans. RBI mandates that LSPs must be monitored by the Regulated Entities, and the loan disbursal/repayment must flow directly between the RE and the borrower, bypassing the LSP's pool account.
Question 288
What is the purpose of the "Void Pantograph" on a cheque?
The Void Pantograph is a hidden feature. When a cheque is photocopied or scanned, the word "VOID" or "COPY" clearly appears on the copy, making it impossible to use the copy for fraud.
Question 289
Which type of malware restricts access to a computer system (encrypts files) and demands payment to remove the restriction?
Ransomware (like WannaCry) encrypts the user's data and demands a ransom (usually in crypto) for the decryption key. It is a major threat to banking data availability.
Question 290
FASTag uses which technology for electronic toll collection?
FASTag is a reloadable tag employing RFID technology. It is affixed on the vehicle's windscreen and enables automatic deduction of toll charges when the vehicle passes through the toll plaza.
Question 291
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) allows bank employees to:
VPN creates an encrypted "tunnel" over the internet. It is essential for Work From Home scenarios or connecting remote branches securely to the CBS without a dedicated leased line.
Question 292
What is "mPOS" (Mobile Point of Sale)?
mPOS is a cost-effective alternative to traditional bulky POS machines. It allows small merchants to accept card payments using their mobile phones linked to a small card reader.
Question 293
The "e-Rupee" (e?) launched by RBI is a:
e-Rupee is the digital form of legal tender issued by the RBI. Unlike cryptocurrencies (which are private and volatile), CBDC is sovereign currency and exchanges 1:1 with cash.
Question 294
In CBS security, the principle of "Least Privilege" means:
This principle ensures that a teller can only access cash modules, while a loan officer accesses loan modules, preventing unauthorized access and potential fraud.
Question 295
How many NEFT batches are available for settlement in a day (24-hour cycle)?
NEFT operates in half-hourly batches throughout the day (24x7). In a 24-hour cycle, there are 48 batches (00:30 to 00:00).
Question 296
Which standard is used to secure credit/debit card data during transmission and storage?
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) is a set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment.
Question 297
A "Bharat QR" code differs from a standard UPI QR code because:
Bharat QR is an interoperable QR code solution that enables customers to pay using their debit/credit cards (by scanning via banking app) without needing a physical POS terminal.
Question 298
The "3 Vs" that define Big Data are:
Big Data is characterized by high Volume (amount of data), high Velocity (speed of data generation), and high Variety (structured and unstructured data types).
Question 299
A network that connects computers across a city is typically called a:
LAN covers a building; WAN covers countries; MAN covers a city (like a cable TV network or city-wide bank branch connectivity).
Question 300
India's Cheque Truncation System (CTS) is divided into how many grids?
Currently, CTS operates in 3 grids: Northern Grid (New Delhi), Southern Grid (Chennai), and Western Grid (Mumbai). All cheques are cleared through one of these grids.
Question 301
The "Digital Payments Index" (RBI-DPI) measures the extent of digitization of payments across the country. What is the base period for this index?
The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters: Payment Enablers, Payment Infrastructure (Demand-side factors), Payment Infrastructure (Supply-side factors), Payment Performance, and Consumer Centricity. The Base Period for the index has been set as March 2018 (Score = 100). It helps in mapping the deepening of digital payments in India accurately.
Question 302
In biometric authentication, what does "False Acceptance Rate" (FAR) refer to?
FAR is a critical security metric. It measures the likelihood that the biometric security system will incorrectly accept an access attempt by an unauthorized user. In high-security banking applications (like vaults or server rooms), the system is tuned to have an extremely low FAR, even if it means a slightly higher False Rejection Rate (FRR).
Question 303
Why did the RBI mandate the migration from Magnetic Stripe cards to EMV Chip and PIN cards?
EMV (Europay, Mastercard, and Visa) is the global standard for chip-based debit and credit cards. Unlike magnetic stripes which contain static data that can be easily copied/skimmed to create counterfeit cards, EMV chips generate a unique transaction code for every transaction, making cloning extremely difficult and enhancing security.
Question 304
What is the key difference between a "Payment Gateway" and a "Payment Aggregator" (PA)?
A Payment Gateway acts as a technological pipe to transmit data. A Payment Aggregator (PA) facilitates merchants to accept various payment instruments without the need for the merchant to create a separate payment integration system of their own. PAs handle the actual funds, settling them to merchants, and are thus regulated by RBI (Guidelines on PA/PG).
Question 305
"Vishing" is a form of social engineering attack where:
Vishing stands for "Voice Phishing." Criminals pose as bank officials, RBI agents, or tech support over a phone call to create a sense of urgency (e.g., "Your card is blocked") and manipulate victims into sharing OTPs, PINs, or passwords. Smishing involves SMS; Phishing involves Email.
Question 306
Robotic Process Automation (RPA) in banking is best suited for:
RPA uses software "bots" to mimic human actions for routine tasks. It is ideal for processes that are repetitive, prone to human error, and follow strict rules (like account opening forms processing, reconciliation of ATM transactions), freeing up humans for higher-value work.
Question 307
Why do most banks prefer Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS) networks for connecting branches to the Data Center?
MPLS is a routing technique that directs data based on short path labels rather than long network addresses. It is highly reliable, secure (acts like a private network), and supports Quality of Service (QoS), ensuring that critical banking transactions get priority over other traffic like emails.
Question 308
As per RBI Guidelines on Digital Lending (2023), what is the cap on "First Loss Default Guarantee" (FLDG) provided by a Lending Service Provider (LSP) to a Regulated Entity (Bank)?
RBI permits FLDG arrangements between Regulated Entities (Banks/NBFCs) and their partner LSPs (Fintechs), subject to a strict cap of 5% of the amount of the loan portfolio. This ensures the lender still holds the primary credit risk while allowing fintech innovation.
Question 309
In network security, what is the purpose of a "Honeypot"?
A Honeypot is a security mechanism set up to detect, deflect, or counteract attempts at unauthorized use of information systems. It consists of a computer, data, or network site that appears to be part of a network, but is actually isolated and monitored, looking like a valuable target to hackers.
Question 310
What is the current maximum limit for a UPI transaction for specific categories like IPO subscriptions and Retail Direct Schemes?
While the general UPI transaction limit is ?1 Lakh, NPCI has enhanced the limit to ?5 Lakh for specific use cases like IPO applications, RBI Retail Direct Scheme, and payment for educational/medical institutions to encourage digital adoption for high-value payments.
Question 311
Banks typically host their Core Banking Solution in a "Tier 4" Data Center. What does Tier 4 imply?
Data Centers are rated from Tier 1 to Tier 4 based on uptime and redundancy. Tier 4 is the highest standard, offering Fault Tolerance (no single point of failure), independent dual-powered cooling/power paths, and 99.995% uptime guarantee, crucial for 24x7 banking operations.
Question 312
An Information Systems (IS) Audit distinguishes between "System Audit" and "Process Audit". What does a Process Audit focus on?
A System Audit looks at the technical aspects (hardware, software, security settings). A Process Audit looks at the human/operational aspect—whether users are following the Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs), like password hygiene, maker-checker discipline, and authorization workflows.
Question 313
Which technological initiative in banking directly contributes to "Green Banking"?
Green Banking aims to reduce the carbon footprint. Technologies that promote paperless transactions (Net banking, E-Statements, Mobile Wallets) directly support this by saving paper and reducing the need for physical transport.
Question 314
As per RBI guidelines on Outsourcing of IT Services, banks CANNOT outsource which of the following functions?
RBI allows outsourcing of non-core activities (like IT support, hardware maintenance). However, Core Management Functions , including decision-making regarding credit, policy formulation, internal audit, and compliance, cannot be outsourced as it compromises the bank's control and accountability.
Question 315
In the context of Blockchain technology, what is a "Smart Contract"?
Smart contracts are digital protocols (code) deployed on a blockchain. They automatically execute transactions (like releasing funds) only when specific pre-defined conditions are triggered (e.g., goods delivered), eliminating the need for intermediaries and increasing trust.
Question 316
The Indian Financial System Code (IFSC) is an 11-character code. What does the 5th character always represent?
The IFSC structure is: First 4 chars = Bank Code (Alphabetic); 5th char = 0 (Zero) (Reserved for future use); Last 6 chars = Branch Code (Numeric/Alphabetic). Example: SBIN0001234.
Question 317
Under the Cheque Truncation System (CTS), what is the format of the cheque images transmitted from the collecting bank to the paying bank?
CTS standards mandate using the TIFF (Tagged Image File Format) . Three images are captured: 1. Front Grayscale (for visual details), 2. Front Black & White (Binary, for MICR reading), 3. Back Black & White (Binary, for endorsements).
Question 318
In an IMPS (Immediate Payment Service) transaction using Mobile Number and MMID, the length of the MMID (Mobile Money Identifier) is:
MMID is a 7-digit random number issued by the bank to the customer upon registration for mobile banking. The first 4 digits represent the unique bank code, and the last 3 digits identify the user account. It enables fund transfers using just Mobile No + MMID, preserving privacy of account details.
Question 319
The RSA algorithm is a classic example of which type of encryption?
RSA (Rivest–Shamir–Adleman) is the most widely used Asymmetric Encryption algorithm. It uses two different keys: a Public Key to encrypt data and a Private Key to decrypt it. This is the foundation of secure internet communication (SSL/TLS).
Question 320
In Banking CRM (Customer Relationship Management), "Analytical CRM" primarily focuses on:
Operational CRM handles customer touchpoints. Analytical CRM works in the backend, analyzing the vast data generated by Operational CRM to provide insights (e.g., "Which customer is likely to buy a home loan?") using Data Mining and BI tools.
Question 321
The "NETC" program which governs FASTag operations stands for:
NETC (National Electronic Toll Collection) is the flagship program of NPCI developed to meet the electronic tolling requirements of the Indian market using RFID technology (FASTag).
Question 322
A key feature of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or e-Rupee is that:
CBDC is sovereign currency in digital form. Unlike bank deposits (liability of the commercial bank), CBDC is a direct claim on the Central Bank. It does not typically earn interest (to prevent it from competing with bank deposits) and exchanges at par with cash.
Question 323
In an ATM, what is the function of "Cassettes"?
Cassettes are the removable boxes inside the ATM safe where cash is loaded. Typically, an ATM has 4 cassettes, each configured for a specific denomination (e.g., ?500, ?100, ?200).
Question 324
In the SWIFT messaging system, which message type (MT) is used for a "Single Customer Credit Transfer"?
MT 103 is the standard format for cross-border customer wire transfers. MT 202 is for bank-to-bank transfers. MT 700 is for Letter of Credit issuance.
Question 325
Which Cloud Deployment Model is considered most suitable for banks to store sensitive Core Banking Data due to privacy and security concerns?
A Private Cloud is dedicated infrastructure for a single organization. It offers the highest level of security and control, which is essential for core banking data where data privacy regulations are strict. Public cloud is shared and generally used for non-critical apps.
Question 326
How does Machine Learning (ML) improve Fraud Detection in banking?
ML models learn the customer's spending behavior over time. If a transaction occurs that is unusual (e.g., huge amount, strange location, odd time), the ML system flags it instantly as potential fraud, far faster and more accurately than rule-based systems.
Question 327
As per RBI guidelines, Payment Aggregators (PAs) must maintain the funds collected from customers in an escrow account. The funds from this account must be settled to the merchant within:
To protect merchant funds, RBI mandates strict settlement timelines. For PAs, the final settlement to the merchant must happen typically by T+1 (where T is the date of transaction capture) to ensure liquidity for the merchant.
Question 328
The "Account Aggregator" (AA) ecosystem in India uses which technology standard to share financial data securely with user consent?
The AA framework is built on standardised Open APIs. These APIs allow Financial Information Providers (Banks) to share data with Financial Information Users (Lenders) securely and in real-time, only after the customer gives digital consent via the AA handle.
Question 329
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions are deployed by banks primarily to:
DLP tools monitor data in motion (network traffic), data at rest (storage), and data in use (endpoints) to ensure that sensitive/confidential data is not leaked, emailed, or uploaded to unauthorized external locations.
Question 330
RBI's Regulatory Sandbox operates in "Cohorts" (groups). The First Cohort launched by RBI was focused on which theme?
RBI launches thematic cohorts to encourage innovation in specific areas. The first cohort (2019) was "Retail Payments" (e.g., offline payments), the second was "Cross Border Payments", the third was "MSME Lending", and fourth was "Prevention of Financial Frauds".
Question 331
What is the primary objective of "Penetration Testing" (Pen Testing) in banking security?
Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing (VAPT) is a proactive security measure. While Vulnerability Assessment identifies potential weak points, Penetration Testing goes a step further by actively trying to exploit them to see how deep an attacker can get into the system, helping banks patch holes before real attacks occur.
Question 332
In an IMPS transaction, if the remitter uses "P2A" (Person-to-Account) mode, what details are mandatory?
IMPS offers two main modes: P2P (Person-to-Person) using Mobile Number + MMID, and P2A (Person-to-Account) using Account Number + IFSC. P2A is useful when the beneficiary is not registered for mobile banking but has a bank account.
Question 333
In Business Continuity Planning, "Recovery Point Objective" (RPO) defines:
RPO determines how much data the bank can afford to lose in a disaster. For example, if RPO is 15 minutes, it means backups must be done every 15 minutes, so at most 15 minutes of data is lost. Zero RPO means real-time data replication.
Question 334
Why might a bank adopt a "Hybrid Cloud" strategy?
Hybrid Cloud offers the best of both worlds. Banks can maintain strict compliance and security for core customer data on on-premise/private clouds, while leveraging the massive computing power and lower cost of public clouds for testing, analytics, or peak loads.
Question 335
In digital security, "Non-Repudiation" ensures that:
Non-repudiation provides proof of the origin and integrity of data. Digital Signatures provide non-repudiation because only the sender has the private key to sign it; thus, they cannot later claim they didn't send it.
Question 336
Which subsidiary of NPCI is responsible for taking UPI and RuPay products to international markets?
NIPL was incorporated in 2020 as a wholly-owned subsidiary of NPCI to internationalize India’s indigenous payment offerings like UPI and RuPay cards, partnering with countries like Singapore, UAE, and Nepal.
Question 337
What is the difference between a MAC Address and an IP Address?
Media Access Control (MAC) address is a unique hardware identifier burned into the network card (Layer 2). Internet Protocol (IP) address is a software-assigned address that can change depending on the network location (Layer 3).
Question 338
In an Open Banking architecture, what is the function of an "API Gateway"?
The API Gateway sits between the outside world (Fintech apps) and the bank's core systems. It enforces security (authentication, rate limiting), traffic management, and analytics for all incoming API requests.
Question 339
A "Keylogger" is a type of spyware that:
Keyloggers run silently in the background, capturing everything typed on the keyboard. This is a common method used to steal Netbanking login credentials.
Question 340
In the NETC FASTag ecosystem, the "Acquirer Bank" is responsible for:
The Issuer Bank issues the tag to the customer (vehicle owner). The **Acquirer Bank** onboards the Toll Plaza operator and acquires the transaction when a vehicle passes through, routing it to the Issuer for debit.
Question 341
Which framework is commonly used for distributed storage and processing of Big Data in banking?
Apache Hadoop is an open-source software framework used for distributed storage and processing of huge datasets (Big Data) using the MapReduce programming model.
Question 342
In AePS, an "Off-us" transaction means:
"On-us" means the card/account and the terminal belong to the same bank. "Off-us" means they are different (e.g., SBI customer using an HDFC Bank BC point), requiring routing through the NPCI switch.
Question 343
"Pretexting" is a social engineering technique where the attacker:
In Pretexting, the attacker impersonates someone else in authority (e.g., "I am calling from the Bank's Fraud Dept") to manipulate the victim into divulging sensitive data like OTPs.
Question 344
What is "User Acceptance Testing" (UAT) in CBS implementation?
UAT is crucial to ensure the software handles real-world scenarios correctly. It validates the business logic and usability from the perspective of the people who will actually use the system.
Question 345
In the BBPS framework, "Agent Institutions" are:
Agent Institutions recruit and manage physical agents (human touchpoints) to allow cash-based bill payments for customers who are not digitally savvy.
Question 346
The "Internet of Things" (IoT) in banking can be used for:
IoT refers to a network of physical objects embedded with sensors. Banks use it for collateral management (tracking smart warehouses/vehicles) and transforming payment experiences (smartwatches, cars).
Question 347
Which of the following is an example of "Inherence" factor in Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)?
Inherence refers to something the user "is" (Biometrics). Password is "Knowledge" (something you know). OTP/Card is "Possession" (something you have).
Question 348
Chatbots in banking use "NLP" to understand customer queries. What does NLP stand for?
NLP is a branch of AI that gives computers the ability to understand, interpret, and respond to text and spoken words in the same way human beings can.
Question 349
Why do PPI issuers (Wallet companies) maintain an "Escrow Account"?
RBI mandates that the core funds of customers in a PPI must not be co-mingled with the company's own funds. An Escrow Account ensures these funds are ring-fenced and used only for settled payments.
Question 350
VSAT technology uses satellites for communication. It is particularly useful for banking connectivity in:
Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) allows data transmission via satellite, bypassing the need for physical cables, making it ideal for connecting ATMs and branches in difficult terrains.
Question 351
The "Begin of Day" (BOD) process in CBS ensures:
BOD is a mandatory process run before any transaction can take place. It updates the system date, checks system health, and enables transaction posting for the new day.
Question 352
"Spear Phishing" is a targeted attack where:
Unlike generic phishing (casting a wide net), Spear Phishing targets specific victims using personalized information (name, role) to increase the success rate of the deception.
Question 353
How will 5G technology primarily benefit banking operations?
5G allows for faster data transfer with minimal delay (latency). This is crucial for real-time fraud detection, high-frequency trading, and immersive customer experiences.
Question 354
The Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) system is mandatory for which payments ecosystem?
RBI mandated authorized Payment System Operators (PSOs) to implement an ODR system for resolving disputes and grievances related to failed transactions in a transparent, rule-based, and automated manner.
Question 355
A "Neobank" is best described as:
Neobanks operate entirely online/mobile. In India, since RBI does not yet issue virtual banking licenses, they typically partner with licensed scheduled banks to hold customer deposits while providing a superior UI/UX layer.
Question 356
The "Lock Icon" in the browser address bar indicates that the connection is secured using:
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) or its successor TLS (Transport Layer Security) encrypts the link between the web server and the browser, ensuring privacy and data integrity. It turns HTTP into HTTPS.
Question 357
In CBS implementation, "Big Bang Migration" refers to:
Big Bang involves switching the entire bank to the new system at once (usually over a weekend). It is riskier but faster than the Phased approach.
Question 358
What is the main benefit of "SWIFT gpi" (Global Payments Innovation)?
SWIFT gpi transformed cross-border payments by providing a unique tracking reference (UETR) that allows banks to track the status of the payment in real-time across the correspondent banking network.
Question 359
Why is "Quantum Computing" considered a potential threat to current banking security?
Quantum computers can solve complex mathematical problems much faster than classical computers. This capability could allow them to crack asymmetric encryption algorithms (like RSA) that currently underpin banking security, necessitating a move to Post-Quantum Cryptography.
Question 360
What is "SIM Swap Fraud"?
In SIM Swap, the attacker convinces the mobile operator to issue a new SIM card for the victim's number. Once activated, the attacker receives all SMS/OTPs intended for the victim, bypassing 2FA security.
Question 361
Which of the following statements best distinguishes "Ethics" from "Morality"?
Ethics is often defined as the rules of conduct recognized in respect to a particular class of human actions or a particular group or culture (external). Morality is more internal, referring to personal beliefs about right and wrong.
Question 362
A bank employee uses confidential information about a corporate client's upcoming merger to buy shares before the news is public. This is an example of:
Insider Trading involves trading in a public company's stock by someone who has non-public, material information about that stock. It is illegal and unethical.
Question 363
Which of the following actions constitutes "Sexual Harassment" at the workplace under the POSH Act, 2013?
The POSH Act defines sexual harassment to include unwelcome physical contact, sexually colored remarks, showing pornography, or any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature.
Question 364
The "Whistleblower Policy" in a bank is designed to protect employees who:
Whistleblowing is the act of drawing attention to perceived wrongdoing, misconduct, corruption, fraud, or unethical activity within a public or private organization. The policy protects them from retaliation.
Question 365
An ethical dilemma involves a situation where:
An ethical dilemma arises when values conflict (e.g., Loyalty to a friend vs. Truthfulness to the employer). There is often no single "perfect" solution.
Question 366
Which principle is NOT considered a core pillar of Good Corporate Governance?
Corporate Governance focuses on ethical conduct, transparency, accountability, and fairness to all stakeholders. While profit is a goal, "at any cost" (ignoring ethics) violates governance principles.
Question 367
A "Conflict of Interest" occurs when:
Conflict of interest creates a risk that professional judgment or actions will be biased by a secondary interest (e.g., a loan officer approving a loan for their own relative).
Question 368
The "Code of Bank’s Commitment to Customers" was issued by:
BCSBI was set up to ensure that the banking system provides fair and transparent treatment to its customers. It issued codes setting minimum standards of banking practices.
Question 369
The "Golden Rule" of ethics states:
The Golden Rule is a principle of treating others as one wants to be treated. It is a common maxim found in many religions and ethical systems.
Question 370
A person of "Integrity" is best described as someone who:
Integrity involves honesty and consistency of character. It implies acting according to one's values regardless of the circumstances or lack of supervision.
Question 371
"Window Dressing" of a balance sheet by a bank is considered unethical because:
Window dressing involves manipulating financial statements (e.g., temporarily boosting deposits at year-end) to make the company look better performing than it actually is. This violates the principle of transparency.
Question 372
A strong "Work Ethic" is characterized by:
Work ethic is a value based on hard work and diligence. It includes being reliable, showing initiative, and maintaining high standards of quality.
Question 373
The ethical theory of "Utilitarianism" advocates for:
Utilitarianism (associated with Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill) is a consequentialist theory. It suggests that the moral worth of an action is determined by its contribution to overall utility (happiness/welfare).
Question 374
A banker’s "Fiduciary Duty" implies a relationship of:
A fiduciary relationship is one of trust, where one party (the banker) is duty-bound to act in the best interest of the other party (the customer), especially when managing their funds or giving advice.
Question 375
Which ethical theory emphasizes "Duty" and rules over consequences? (e.g., "Do not lie even if it saves a life")
Deontology (associated with Immanuel Kant) focuses on moral duties and rules. It argues that some acts are inherently right or wrong, regardless of their consequences.
Question 376
In banking, a "Chinese Wall" refers to:
The Chinese Wall policy is critical to manage conflicts of interest. It ensures that sensitive information obtained by one department does not leak to another department that could use it for unfair trading or advice.
Question 377
Under the Companies Act, 2013, eligible companies are required to spend what percentage of their average net profits on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)?
Section 135 mandates that companies with a certain net worth, turnover, or profit must spend at least 2% of their average net profits of the immediately preceding three financial years on CSR activities.
Question 378
The "Fair Practice Code for Lenders" mandates that:
The code ensures transparency in lending. It requires banks to provide comprehensive information about fees, charges, and terms, and to communicate reasons for loan rejection to avoid discrimination.
Question 379
"Moonlighting" refers to:
Moonlighting raises ethical concerns regarding loyalty, conflict of interest, and misuse of company time/resources. Many employment contracts prohibit it.
Question 380
Aristotle's "Virtue Ethics" focuses on:
Virtue ethics emphasizes the development of virtuous character traits (like courage, honesty, wisdom). It asks "What sort of person should I be?" rather than "What should I do?"
Question 381
"Mis-selling" in banking primarily refers to:
Mis-selling is a major ethical issue where employees prioritize their sales targets or commissions over the customer's best interest (e.g., selling a long-term insurance policy to an elderly person who needs liquidity).
Question 382
The "Triple Bottom Line" (TBL) concept implies that businesses should report on:
TBL suggests that companies should focus on social responsibility (People) and environmental sustainability (Planet) in addition to their economic performance (Profit).
Question 383
Why do banks have strict policies regarding acceptance of gifts by employees from customers?
Accepting significant gifts can create a sense of obligation in the employee towards the customer, leading to biased decisions (like approving a risky loan) and potential corruption.
Question 384
Which statement correctly describes the relationship between Ethics and Law?
Law provides the "floor" (minimum standards) of conduct enforced by the state. Ethics often sets a higher standard ("ceiling"). Something can be legal but unethical (e.g., adultery, breaking a promise), or illegal but ethical (e.g., breaking an unjust law).
Question 385
Strict adherence to KYC/AML norms is not just a legal requirement but an ethical one because:
Ethically, bankers have a duty to society to ensure their platforms are not exploited to harm the public or the nation. Negligence in KYC can facilitate crime.
Question 386
Stakeholder Theory suggests that a company should create value for:
Unlike Shareholder Theory (Friedman) which focuses on profit for owners, Stakeholder Theory (Freeman) argues that a business has a responsibility to all groups that have a stake in its operations.
Question 387
Under the POSH Act, every organization with 10 or more employees must constitute an "Internal Committee" (IC). The Presiding Officer of this IC must be:
To ensure sensitivity and fairness in handling complaints of sexual harassment against women, the Act mandates that the IC must be headed by a senior woman employee.
Question 388
A bank sharing customer data with a third-party marketing firm without the customer's explicit consent violates the ethical duty of:
Banks have an implied contract of secrecy with their customers (Tournier's Case). Revealing information without consent or legal compulsion is a breach of trust and ethics.
Question 389
Aristotle's "Golden Mean" suggests that virtue lies:
For example, Courage is the golden mean between Cowardice (deficiency) and Rashness (excess). Ethical behavior is about balance.
Question 390
Values are internal; Ethics are ________.
Values are personal beliefs. Ethics are often external standards provided by institutions, groups, or culture to which an individual belongs (e.g., legal ethics, medical ethics).
Question 391
"Creative Accounting" refers to:
It is an unethical practice where accountants use their knowledge of accounting rules to manipulate the figures reported in the accounts of a business.
Question 392
A healthy work ethic environment requires a mechanism for employees to voice concerns. This is called:
An internal grievance redressal mechanism allows employees to report unfair treatment or harassment, ensuring justice and maintaining high morale and ethics.
Question 393
If a bank's proprietary trading desk bets against a client's position based on confidential info, it violates:
This is a classic conflict of interest and a breach of fiduciary duty. The bank is prioritizing its own profit over the client's interest using privileged information.
Question 394
Compliance is about following the law. Ethics is about:
Ethics goes beyond legal compliance ("Letter of the law") to the "Spirit of the law" and moral obligations.
Question 395
A "Code of Ethics" in a company typically serves to:
A Code of Ethics outlines the mission and values of the business, how professionals are supposed to approach problems, and the ethical principles based on the organization's core values.
Question 396
A manager forcing a subordinate to falsify reports under threat of firing is an example of:
This involves using one's authority to coerce others into unethical acts, which is a severe ethical violation.
Question 397
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right of an employee in the workplace?
Employees have a duty to use company assets for business purposes. Misusing them for personal gain is unethical and often illegal theft.
Question 398
Opening a "Benami" account facilitates which unethical activity?
Benami accounts are used to hide the true identity of the beneficial owner, enabling the hiding of black money and evasion of taxes.
Question 399
"Moral Myopia" refers to:
It is a distortion of moral vision that keeps ethical issues from coming into focus, often allowing individuals to act unethically without feeling guilty.
Question 400
In banking, "Reputation Risk" is primarily caused by:
Reputation is a bank's most valuable asset. Unethical behavior destroys trust, leading to loss of customers and business, which is reputation risk.
Question 401
The Internal Committee (IC) for sexual harassment must have at least what percentage of women members?
The POSH Act mandates that at least one-half of the total members of the Internal Committee so nominated shall be women.
Question 402
Professionalism in banking includes:
Professionalism is about conduct, behavior, and attitude. It requires possessing the necessary skills (competence) and adhering to ethical standards (integrity).
Question 403
In the age of AI and Big Data, "Algorithmic Bias" in lending refers to:
This is a new ethical challenge. If AI models are trained on biased past data (e.g., discriminating against a specific pin code or gender), the AI will replicate that bias, leading to unfair lending practices.
Question 404
Which value is essential for a banker to maintain the "Secrecy" of customer accounts?
Confidentiality is the ethical value that directly supports the legal duty of secrecy. Without discretion, trust is broken.
Question 405
Accepting a "Kickback" (commission) from a vendor for approving their contract is:
Kickbacks are illegal payments made in return for a service or favor. It compromises the objectivity of the decision-maker.
Question 406
Green Banking initiatives are primarily driven by which ethical concern?
Green Banking addresses the ethical obligation of businesses to protect the planet by reducing carbon footprints and funding eco-friendly projects.
Question 407
"Time Theft" at the workplace includes:
Time theft occurs when an employee accepts pay for time they have not actually worked or have used for personal matters.
Question 408
The "Protected Disclosure Scheme" of RBI is related to:
RBI introduced this scheme to provide a channel for employees/public to report corruption/misuse of power in Private Sector and Foreign Banks, similar to the CVC mechanism for PSBs.
Question 409
The term "Work-Life Balance" is ethically significant because:
From a deontological (duty) and virtue ethics perspective, respecting an employee's need for rest and family life treats them as ends in themselves, not just means to profit.
Question 410
"Nepotism" in the workplace refers to:
Nepotism undermines fairness and meritocracy, leading to poor organizational performance and resentment among other employees.
Question 411
What is the primary purpose of the "Code of Conduct for Insider Trading"?
This code helps maintain market integrity by ensuring that those with privileged access to data do not exploit it at the expense of the general public.
Question 412
Which of the following is an indicator of "Poor Work Ethic"?
Reliability and timeliness are core components of a good work ethic. Constantly being late or delaying work shows a lack of respect for the job and others.
Question 413
The "Right to Suitability" means that bankers have an ethical obligation to:
Selling a high-risk product to a conservative investor violates the principle of suitability. Ethics demands that the product fits the customer, not just the bank's sales target.
Question 414
The "Newspaper Test" or "Sunshine Test" in ethical decision-making asks:
This test relies on public scrutiny and shame. If you are uncomfortable with the public knowing your action, it is likely unethical.
Question 415
Spreading false rumors about a competitor bank to gain market share is a violation of:
Ethical competition involves competing on merit (product, service) rather than sabotage or deception. Spreading lies is unethical and potentially illegal (defamation).
Question 416
The "Ethical Climate" of an organization is primarily determined by:
Employees look to leaders for cues on acceptable behavior. If leaders act unethically, employees will follow suit, regardless of written policies.
Question 417
Which trait describes an employee who takes ownership of their actions and results?
Accountability is the willingness to accept responsibility for one's actions, decisions, and outcomes, whether good or bad.
Question 418
When a banker faces a conflict between meeting a sales target and acting in the customer's best interest, the ethical choice is to:
Long-term trust and reputation are more valuable than short-term targets. Ethical banking requires putting the customer first.
Question 419
Ethical behavior that comes from internal conviction rather than fear of punishment is known as:
True ethics is self-imposed. It involves doing the right thing because it is right, not just because it is the rule.
Question 420
Under the Companies Act, 2013, the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Committee of the Board must consist of at least three directors, out of which:
To ensure unbiased oversight of CSR activities, the Act mandates that the CSR Committee must include at least one Independent Director among its minimum three members.
Question 421
The unethical practice where a broker/dealer executes orders on a security for their own account while taking advantage of advance knowledge of pending orders from customers is called:
Front Running is unethical because the broker profits at the expense of the client by stepping in front of the client's large order, which might have moved the market price.
Question 422
The "Charter of Customer Rights" issued by RBI includes the "Right to Privacy". This means:
This right reinforces the ethical and legal duty of confidentiality. Banks must secure customer data against unauthorized access and misuse.
Question 423
A bank manager decides to fund a polluting factory because it creates thousands of jobs for the local community. Which ethical theory is he primarily applying?
He is weighing the consequences: the "greater good" (jobs/economic welfare) vs the harm (pollution). Utilitarianism looks at the net benefit to the maximum number of people.
Question 424
Creating a "Hostile Work Environment" refers to:
Hostile work environment is a form of harassment where an employee feels unable to perform their duties due to the negative behavior of others (bullying, sexual harassment, discrimination).
Question 425
Which committee in India gave comprehensive recommendations on "Corporate Governance" in 2003?
The SEBI Committee on Corporate Governance constituted under the chairmanship of N.R. Narayana Murthy helped refine governance norms in India (Clause 49 of Listing Agreement).
Question 426
Evergreening of loans is considered unethical because:
Evergreening is a deceptive practice used to prevent a loan from being classified as NPA. It misleads stakeholders about the bank's health and eventually leads to bigger losses.
Question 427
The component of "Attitude" that relates to feelings and emotions is called:
Attitudes have three components (ABC Model): Affective (Feeling), Behavioral (Action), and Cognitive (Belief/Thought). Affective deals with emotions (like/dislike).
Question 428
Hiding "Hidden Charges" in fine print violates the ethical principle of:
Banks have an ethical obligation to be transparent about all costs associated with a product. Hiding charges deceives the customer and violates fair dealing norms.
Question 429
Treating an employee unfavorably because of their gender, race, or religion is defined as:
Discrimination involves making unjustified distinctions between human beings based on the groups, classes, or other categories to which they are perceived to belong.
Question 430
Using unlicensed software on bank computers is an ethical violation related to:
Software piracy violates the copyright of the creator (IPR). Banks must ensure all software used is legally licensed to maintain ethical standards.
Question 431
The primary responsibility for setting the "Tone at the Top" regarding ethics rests with:
"Tone at the Top" refers to the ethical atmosphere created by the leadership. If leaders demonstrate high ethical standards, it trickles down to the entire organization.
Question 432
Which of the following is a key principle of the "Model Policy on Grievance Redressal" in banks?
The policy emphasizes fairness, transparency, and accessibility. Customers must be informed of their rights and the mechanism to resolve disputes.
Question 433
A "Belief" differs from a "Value" in that:
Belief: "I believe lying is risky." Value: "I value honesty." Values guide behavior and are deeply held convictions about priorities.
Question 434
Which action demonstrates good "Cyber Ethics" by a bank employee?
This prevents unauthorized access to sensitive bank data. Sharing passwords or opening suspicious emails violates security policies and ethics.
Question 435
The main function of an "Ethics Committee" in an organization is to:
The committee oversees the implementation of the Code of Ethics, resolves dilemmas, and ensures that the organization adheres to its ethical commitments.
Question 436
Printing 500 pages of a personal ebook using the office printer is an example of:
Using company assets (stationery, tech, funds) for personal gain without permission is unethical and constitutes theft of company property.
Question 437
Under which circumstances can a banker ethically and legally disclose customer affairs?
Exceptions to secrecy (Tournier's rules) include: 1. Compulsion of law 2. Duty to the public 3. Interest of the bank 4. Customer's consent.
Question 438
What is the ethical difference between a "Gift" and a "Bribe"?
While the line can be thin, the key is "Expectation of Reciprocity." If it's given to sway a business outcome, it's a bribe (unethical).
Question 439
Which branch of ethics deals with the practical application of moral considerations (e.g., Business Ethics, Bioethics)?
Applied Ethics examines specific controversial issues (like abortion, animal rights, corporate corruption) and uses ethical theories to resolve them.
Question 440
For Public Sector Banks (PSBs), the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) receives whistleblower complaints under which resolution?
The Government of India authorized CVC as the "Designated Agency" to receive written complaints for disclosure on any allegation of corruption or misuse of office under PIDPI Resolution.
Question 441
Information that is "Price Sensitive" and "Unpublished" is known as:
Trading based on UPSI is the core of Insider Trading violations. It includes financial results, dividends, mergers, etc., that have not yet been made public.
Question 442
The principle of "Transparency" in the Charter of Customer Rights means the bank must:
Transparency prevents information asymmetry. Customers must know exactly what they are buying, including the fine print, to make informed decisions.
Question 443
Malicious gossip and spreading rumors in the workplace are ethical violations because:
While some social interaction is normal, malicious rumors can destroy careers and teamwork (defamation). It violates the principle of respect for colleagues.
Question 444
"Ethical Relativism" claims that:
It suggests that "When in Rome, do as the Romans do." What is ethical in one culture (e.g., bribery as "gift giving") might be unethical in another.
Question 445
A company follows all laws but exploits its workers by paying minimum wage for dangerous work without safety gear (where no law specifies safety gear). This company is:
It follows the letter of the law (compliance) but violates basic human rights and moral duty of care (ethics). This highlights the gap between law and ethics.
Question 446
To manage Conflict of Interest effectively, an employee should:
Transparency (Disclosure) and Recusal (stepping back) are the standard ethical procedures to handle conflicts of interest.
Question 447
The "Right to Grievance Redressal and Compensation" ensures that:
It mandates that banks must have a clearly laid out policy for redressal and compensate customers for financial loss due to the bank's deficiency.
Question 448
Why is "Personal Grooming and Etiquette" considered part of professional ethics in banking?
As service providers, bankers represent their institution. Professional appearance and polite behavior build trust and confidence in customers.
Question 449
"Altruism" is the ethical principle of:
Altruism is the opposite of egoism. It involves acting to benefit others, sometimes at a cost to oneself.
Question 450
A bank sanctioning a loan to a company owned by the Chairman's spouse without disclosing the relationship violates regulations on:
Transactions with related parties (relatives of directors) must be at "Arm's Length" (fair market terms) and fully disclosed to prevent conflict of interest and favoritism.
Question 451
Adopting "ESG" norms in business stands for:
ESG is a framework used to assess the sustainability and ethical impact of a company. Investors increasingly use ESG criteria to screen investments.
Question 452
"Quid Pro Quo" harassment means:
Quid Pro Quo involves an authority figure making employment decisions contingent on the employee's submission to sexual advances.
Question 453
Discriminating against a customer based on their religion or caste while opening an account is:
RBI guidelines and the Constitution prohibit discrimination in access to banking services based on caste, creed, religion, or gender. It violates the Right to Fair Treatment.
Question 454
Which question is NOT part of the "Blanchard and Peale" model for resolving ethical dilemmas?
The 3 questions are: 1. Is it legal? 2. Is it balanced? 3. How does it make me feel about myself? "Will I get caught" is a question based on fear of punishment, not ethics.
Question 455
An employee leaves their computer unlocked, leading to a data breach. This is a failure of:
Due care involves taking reasonable steps to prevent harm. Negligence in basic security hygiene violates the duty of care towards customer data.
Question 456
An "Ethical Audit" is:
It measures the consistency between the organization's stated values and its actual behavior to identify areas for improvement.
Question 457
Taking credit for a colleague's work is:
It involves dishonesty (lying about contribution) and theft (stealing credit). It erodes team cohesion.
Question 458
RBI guidelines on Recovery Agents prohibit:
Banks are ethically and legally responsible for the conduct of their recovery agents. Harassment violates the customer's right to dignity and privacy.
Question 459
Personal values are primarily formed by:
Values are deep-seated beliefs shaped by early socialization (family/school) and later environment (culture/experience).
Question 460
If a whistleblower reports a fraud anonymously, the ethics committee should:
While anonymity makes investigation harder, the substance of the complaint matters. Ignoring it could allow fraud to continue. Retaliation (C) is unethical and illegal.
Question 461
A "Compliance Officer" in a bank ensures:
The Compliance Officer acts as the conscience keeper of the bank, mitigating regulatory and reputational risk.
Question 462
Blind loyalty to a supervisor becomes unethical when:
Loyalty to the organization and ethical principles supersedes loyalty to an individual. "Following orders" is not a defense for illegal acts.
Question 463
Before selling a complex derivative product to a small business, a bank must ensure:
This is the "Right to Suitability." Selling inappropriate complex products violates this right (e.g., the 2008 derivatives misselling cases).
Question 464
Consequentialism assesses the morality of an action based on:
Utilitarianism is a form of Consequentialism. It holds that the "ends" determine the rightness of the "means".
Question 465
If a client offers a bank employee an expensive watch to expedite a loan application, the employee should:
Accepting valuable gifts creates a conflict of interest and resembles bribery. Refusal maintains integrity.
Question 466
Why is having "Independent Directors" on the Board important for ethics?
Independent directors are not part of the management team and have no pecuniary relationship with the company, allowing them to hold the management accountable without conflict of interest.
Question 467
Ignoring safety protocols (e.g., leaving the strong room open) to save time is:
Employees have a duty to protect the bank's assets. Shortcuts that compromise safety are unethical and negligent.
Question 468
Unethical "Cross-Selling" involves:
Forced bundling exploits the customer's need for one product to sell another unwanted product. This restricts customer choice and is an unfair trade practice.
Question 469
A lawyer defending a client they know is guilty is acting based on:
Legal ethics require a lawyer to provide the best defense for their client, regardless of personal belief in their guilt. This illustrates how professional ethics can differ from personal morality.
Question 470
Banks usually restrict employees from frequent speculative trading in the stock market to avoid:
Excessive trading distracts from duties and may lead employees to use bank resources or information for personal gain.
Question 471
Transparency in corporate reporting builds:
When companies openly disclose information (good or bad), stakeholders (investors, customers) trust them more, reducing the cost of capital and enhancing reputation.
Question 472
Equal Pay for Equal Work mandates that:
This is a fundamental human right and ethical principle to prevent gender-based wage discrimination.
Question 473
Ethical banking involves "Customer Education". This means:
Empowering customers with knowledge prevents fraud and helps them make better financial decisions, which is a duty of the bank.
Question 474
Which of the following is a "Personal Value"?
Personal values are internal beliefs about what is right and wrong, such as honesty, courage, and kindness.
Question 475
Altering data in a loan application to make a borrower appear eligible is:
Falsifying data compromises the bank's risk management and integrity. It is fraud.
Question 476
What is the purpose of a "Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report" (BRSR) mandated by SEBI?
BRSR encourages companies to be accountable for their social and environmental impact, moving beyond just financial reporting.
Question 477
When dealing with a difficult colleague, the ethical approach is to:
Respect and professionalism are key to resolving workplace conflicts ethically.
Question 478
If a bank fails to resolve a complaint within 30 days, the customer has the right to approach:
This external grievance redressal mechanism ensures that customers have a recourse if the bank's internal mechanism fails.
Question 479
The "Sleep Test" in ethics refers to:
This is a simple intuition test. If a decision causes guilt or anxiety (preventing sleep), it violates one's conscience and is likely unethical.