Question 1
Which of the following statements regarding "Ind AS" (Indian Accounting Standards) is CORRECT?
View Explanation
Ind AS is "converged" with IFRS, meaning it is largely based on IFRS but contains certain "Carve-outs" (deviations) to suit Indian economic and legal conditions.
Question 2
The "Going Concern Concept" assumes that:
View Explanation
The Going Concern assumption is fundamental to accounting. It implies the entity has neither the intention nor the need to liquidate or curtail materially the scale of its operations. This justifies charging depreciation over useful life rather than liquidation value.
Question 3
Which of the following transactions is recorded in the "Journal Proper"?
View Explanation
Journal Proper is used for transactions that do not fit into special subsidiary books (like Cash Book, Purchase Book, Sales Book). Credit purchase of fixed assets (Furniture) goes to Journal Proper, whereas credit purchase of Goods goes to Purchase Book.
Question 4
When preparing a BRS starting with the "Debit Balance as per Cash Book", how should "Cheques issued but not yet presented for payment" be treated?
View Explanation
When you issue a cheque, you deduct it from the Cash Book immediately. However, the Passbook balance remains higher until the cheque is presented. To reconcile (match Passbook), you must add the amount back to the Cash Book balance.
Question 5
Under the Written Down Value (WDV) method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation charged:
View Explanation
In WDV method, depreciation is calculated on the reducing balance of the asset. Since the book value decreases each year, the depreciation amount also decreases, which matches the higher repair costs in later years.
Question 6
Amount spent on the installation of new machinery is classified as:
View Explanation
Any cost incurred to bring a fixed asset to its working condition (like freight, installation, trial run) is capitalized (added to the cost of the asset) and treated as Capital Expenditure.
Question 7
If the Trial Balance does not tally, the difference is temporarily transferred to a Suspense Account. If the credit side is heavier, the Suspense Account will appear on the:
View Explanation
If the Credit side of Trial Balance is heavier, it means there is a shortage on the Debit side. The Suspense Account will have a Debit balance to balance it. Debit balances (if not expenses) are shown on the Asset side.
Question 8
The accounting equation "Assets = Liabilities + Capital" is based on which concept?
View Explanation
The Dual Aspect Concept states that every transaction has two effects: a debit and a credit of equal amount. This forms the basis of Double Entry Bookkeeping and the Accounting Equation.
Question 9
What is "Noting" in the context of a Bill of Exchange?
View Explanation
When a bill is dishonoured, the holder gets it "Noted" by a Notary Public to establish legal proof of presentation and dishonour. This is the first step before "Protesting".
Question 10
Which accounting standard deals with "The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates"?
View Explanation
AS 11 prescribes how to account for foreign currency transactions and foreign operations. AS 10 is Property, Plant & Equipment; AS 3 is Cash Flow; AS 9 is Revenue Recognition.
Question 11
Which is the correct sequence in the accounting cycle?
View Explanation
Transactions are first recorded in the Journal (Original Entry), posted to the Ledger (Classification), summarized in the Trial Balance, and finally analyzed in Final Accounts.
Question 12
A "Contra Entry" appears in which type of Cash Book?
View Explanation
A Contra Entry is recorded when cash is deposited into the bank or withdrawn from the bank for office use. It affects both Cash and Bank columns simultaneously on opposite sides.
Question 13
If the starting point is "Overdraft as per Passbook", and a cheque of ?5000 deposited has not yet been collected/credited, what should be done?
View Explanation
Start: OD as per Passbook. Cheque deposited means Cash Book balance increased (OD decreased). Passbook hasn't changed yet (High OD). To match Cash Book (target), we must reduce the OD. But wait, logic check: Passbook OD is HIGH. Cashbook OD is LOW (because we assumed deposit). To go from Passbook to Cashbook, we must reduce the OD. "Less" in favorable balance logic means "Add" in Overdraft logic? Let's simplify. PB is -100. CB is -95 (cheque added). Start -100. Target -95. You must Add 5. Correct.
Question 14
According to AS 10 (Property, Plant and Equipment), when does the depreciation of an asset cease?
View Explanation
Depreciation does NOT cease when the asset becomes idle. It stops only when the asset's residual value equals its carrying amount, or it is derecognized.
Question 15
Heavy expenditure on an advertising campaign for a new product launch is best classified as:
View Explanation
It is revenue in nature (advertising) but the benefit is expected to last for more than one year (new product launch). Hence, it is deferred and written off over 3-5 years. Note: Modern standards (AS 26) are stricter, often forcing this to be expensed immediately, but traditionally in exams, it is Deferred Revenue.
Question 16
Purchase of machinery for ?50,000 debited to Purchase Account is an error of:
View Explanation
Treating a Capital Expenditure (Machinery) as a Revenue Expenditure (Purchase A/c) violates accounting principles. Hence, Error of Principle.
Question 17
IFRS stands for:
View Explanation
IFRS are issued by the London-based International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) to provide a common global language for business affairs.
Question 18
Under the "Accrual Concept", revenue is recognized when:
View Explanation
Accrual basis records transactions when they occur (mercantile system), not when cash changes hands. This gives a truer picture of profit/loss.
Question 19
The "Imprest System" is associated with:
View Explanation
In the Imprest system, the petty cashier is given a fixed float (Imprest amount) at the beginning. At the end of the period, they are reimbursed the exact amount spent to restore the float to the original level.
Question 20
How many "Days of Grace" are added to the tenure of a Bill of Exchange to calculate the due date?
View Explanation
As per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 3 days of grace are allowed for bills payable "after date" or "after sight". They are not allowed for "On Demand" bills.
Question 21
If Assets = ?5,00,000 and Capital = ?3,00,000, what are the Liabilities?
View Explanation
Accounting Equation: Assets = Liabilities + Capital. Therefore, Liabilities = Assets - Capital. 5,00,000 - 3,00,000 = 2,00,000.
Question 22
The term "Amortization" refers to writing off the value of:
View Explanation
Depreciation is for tangible assets. Amortization is for intangible assets. Depletion is for wasting assets (natural resources).
Question 23
Which of the following errors will NOT affect the agreement of the Trial Balance?
View Explanation
If a transaction is completely omitted (neither debited nor credited), the total debits and credits will still match, so the Trial Balance will tally despite the error.
Question 24
The "Consistency Concept" implies that:
View Explanation
Consistency ensures that financial statements are comparable over different periods. Frequent changes in methods (e.g., depreciation from SLM to WDV) distort comparison.
Question 25
AS 2 (Valuation of Inventories) states that inventory should be valued at:
View Explanation
This is based on the principle of conservatism (Prudence). You anticipate losses (if NRV < Cost) but do not anticipate gains.
Question 26
How is "Trade Discount" treated in the accounting books?
View Explanation
Trade discount is given at the time of sale to encourage bulk buying. Only the net amount (List Price - Trade Discount) is entered in the books. Cash discount, however, is recorded.
Question 27
A "Debit Balance" in the Passbook indicates:
View Explanation
For the bank, customer deposits are liabilities (Credit balance). Therefore, a Debit balance in the Passbook means the customer owes money to the bank (Overdraft).
Question 28
Annual maintenance charges paid for machinery are:
View Explanation
Maintenance is a recurring expense required to keep the asset in working condition. It does not increase the capacity or life of the asset, so it is Revenue Expenditure.
Question 29
The "Money Measurement Concept" limits accounting because:
View Explanation
Accounting only records transactions that can be expressed in monetary terms. Crucial qualitative factors that affect business success are often not reflected in the books.
Question 30
An "Accommodation Bill" is drawn:
View Explanation
Accommodation bills are not backed by the sale of goods. They are drawn for mutual financial accommodation (to discount and raise money).
Question 31
In the Straight Line Method (SLM), the annual depreciation is calculated as:
View Explanation
Depreciation spreads the "depreciable amount" over the useful life. Depreciable amount is Cost minus Scrap (Salvage) Value.
Question 32
Which of the following errors requires the use of a Suspense Account for rectification?
View Explanation
This is a one-sided error (casting error). The trial balance won't tally, and a Suspense Account is needed to balance it until the error is fixed. The others are two-sided errors.
Question 33
Ind AS is mandatory for unlisted companies if their Net Worth is equal to or greater than:
View Explanation
Under Phase II of Ind AS implementation, unlisted companies with a net worth of ?250 crore or more are required to comply with Ind AS.
Question 34
The process of transferring entries from the Journal to the Ledger is called:
View Explanation
Journalizing is recording; Posting is the act of transferring the debit and credit aspects to the respective accounts in the Ledger.
Question 35
The "Materiality Convention" suggests that:
View Explanation
Accounting should focus on information that is "material" (significant) to the user. For example, a calculator bought for office use is expensed immediately rather than depreciated over 5 years because the amount is immaterial.
Question 36
Which of the following is a "Timing Difference" causing disagreement between Cash Book and Passbook?
View Explanation
Errors (Wrong total, Omission, Double entry) are mistakes. "Cheques issued but not presented" is a timing difference because the transaction is correct but recorded at different times by the firm and the bank.
Question 37
Legal fees paid to acquire a property is:
View Explanation
Legal expenses incurred to acquire or defend the title of a fixed asset are capitalized as part of the asset's cost. Legal fees for debt recovery would be Revenue Expenditure.
Question 38
Transferring the ownership of a Bill of Exchange to another person by signing on the back is called:
View Explanation
Endorsement is the act of signing the instrument (usually on the back) for the purpose of negotiation (transferring title).
Question 39
If an asset costing ?1,00,000 with accumulated depreciation of ?40,000 is sold for ?70,000, the result is:
View Explanation
Book Value = Cost - Accumulated Depreciation = 1,00,000 - 40,000 = ?60,000. Sale Price = ?70,000. Profit = Sale Price - Book Value = 70,000 - 60,000 = ?10,000.
Question 40
In India, Accounting Standards are formulated by:
View Explanation
The Accounting Standards Board (ASB) constituted by ICAI formulates Accounting Standards. Ind AS are notified by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) based on ICAI recommendations.
Question 41
Which of the following is a "Real Account"?
View Explanation
Real Accounts relate to assets and properties (Tangible or Intangible). Cash is a tangible asset. Salary is Nominal (Expense). Ram is Personal. Overdraft is Personal (Liability).
Question 42
Which error is NOT disclosed by the Trial Balance?
View Explanation
Compensating errors occur when one error's effect is nullified by another error (e.g., Overcasting Purchase book by 100 and Sales book by 100). The Trial Balance still tallies.
Question 43
The "Cash Column" of a Cash Book will always have a:
View Explanation
Cash column represents physical cash in hand. Since you cannot pay out more cash than you have, the cash balance can never be negative (Credit). It is always Debit or Nil.
Question 44
A customer directly deposited ?2000 in the bank account. In the BRS starting with Cash Book Balance, this amount will be:
View Explanation
Direct deposit increases the Passbook balance. The Cash Book balance is lower because the accountant doesn't know yet. To match the Cash Book with the Passbook (Target), we must ADD the amount.
Question 45
Amount spent on major repairs of a second-hand machine purchased to make it operational is:
View Explanation
Repairs on a second-hand machine *before* it is put to use are capitalized because they are necessary to bring the asset into working condition.
Question 46
The person who is directed to pay the amount of the Bill of Exchange is known as:
View Explanation
The Drawer makes the bill; the Drawee (debtor) is the one directed to pay; the Payee receives the money.
Question 47
Making a "Provision for Bad and Doubtful Debts" is an application of which concept?
View Explanation
Conservatism states: "Anticipate no profit, but provide for all possible losses." Creating a provision for bad debts anticipates a future loss.
Question 48
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the amount of depreciation?
View Explanation
Depreciation allocation is based on Cost, Useful Life, and Scrap Value. It is a systematic allocation of cost, not a valuation process based on daily market price changes.
Question 49
When errors are rectified in the next financial year, which account is used to adjust the profit/loss impact?
View Explanation
To avoid distorting the current year's profit with last year's errors, nominal account corrections are routed through the P&L Adjustment Account.
Question 50
Net Profit earned during the year will:
View Explanation
Profit belongs to the owner. Therefore, Net Profit is added to the Capital at the end of the year, increasing the owner's equity.
Question 51
AS 1 deals with:
View Explanation
AS 1 requires enterprises to disclose the significant accounting policies followed in preparing and presenting financial statements.
Question 52
Which of the following is known as the "Book of Original Entry"?
View Explanation
Transactions are recorded chronologically in the Journal first, hence it is the Book of Original Entry. The Ledger is the Book of Final Entry.
Question 53
The Sales Book is used to record:
View Explanation
Sales Book records only CREDIT sales of GOODS (inventory). Cash sales go to Cash Book. Asset sales go to Journal Proper.
Question 54
A cheque deposited for ?10,000 was dishonoured. This was not recorded in the Cash Book. In BRS starting with Cash Book balance, this amount should be:
View Explanation
When deposited, Cash Book was increased. Dishonour means Passbook did not increase (or increased and decreased). Since Cash Book is still high, we must Subtract the amount to match Passbook.
Question 55
In the "Sum of Years' Digits" (SYD) method, if the useful life is 3 years, the denominator for the fraction is:
View Explanation
SYD = n(n+1)/2. For 3 years, 1+2+3 = 6. Depreciation fractions will be 3/6, 2/6, 1/6.
Question 56
Wages paid to workers for installing a new machine should be debited to:
View Explanation
Installation wages are a Capital Expenditure as they are necessary to bring the asset to use. Hence, they are added to the cost of the Machine.
Question 57
The fee paid to the Notary Public for noting the dishonour of a bill is called:
View Explanation
Noting Charges are paid by the holder initially but are ultimately recoverable from the drawee (who dishonoured the bill).
Question 58
The "Realisation Concept" implies that revenue is recognized when:
View Explanation
Revenue is considered realized when the title of goods passes to the buyer, creating a legal obligation to pay. Cash receipt is not necessary.
Question 59
Opening entries and Closing entries are recorded in:
View Explanation
The Journal Proper is the residual book of original entry used for Opening, Closing, Transfer, and Rectification entries.
Question 60
An error committed by omitting to post the total of the Sales Book to the Ledger is called:
View Explanation
Recording in Journal/Subsidiary book but failing to post to Ledger is Partial Omission. It affects the Trial Balance agreement.
Question 61
Expenditure incurred on Research and Development (R&D) is generally treated as:
View Explanation
According to Accounting Standards (AS 26 / Ind AS 38), research costs are expensed (Revenue) as incurred. Development costs can be capitalized (Capital) only if technical and commercial feasibility is demonstrated.
Question 62
A change in the method of depreciation (e.g., from SLM to WDV) is treated as:
View Explanation
Under revised standards (Ind AS 8 / AS 10 Revised), a change in depreciation method is considered a "Change in Accounting Estimate" and is applied prospectively (for future periods), not retrospectively.
Question 63
In BRS, if the starting point is "Balance as per Cash Book" and the bank has wrongly credited the account with ?1000, what should be done?
View Explanation
A wrong credit by the bank increases the Passbook balance. To reconcile the Cash Book with the Passbook (target), we must ADD the amount to the Cash Book balance, even though it is an error.
Question 64
According to AS 11, monetary items (like foreign currency loans or receivables) should be reported at the Balance Sheet date using the:
View Explanation
Monetary items (money held and assets/liabilities to be received/paid in fixed money amounts) must be translated at the Closing Rate. Exchange differences are recognized in P&L.
Question 65
When a drawee pays the bill before its due date and receives a "Rebate", how is this Rebate treated in the drawee's books?
View Explanation
Retiring a bill under rebate means paying early. The rebate received is a Gain for the drawee (payer), so it is Credited. (For the holder/receiver, it is an Expense/Debit).
Question 66
Ind AS 1 requires a complete set of financial statements to include a "Statement of Changes in Equity". This statement shows:
View Explanation
Unlike traditional Indian GAAP, Ind AS requires a separate statement detailing the movement in Equity (Share Capital + Other Equity like Reserves) during the year.
Question 67
Which of the following is an "Error of Principle"?
View Explanation
Treating a Revenue expense (Repair) as a Capital asset (Machinery) violates accounting principles. Others are Errors of Commission or Omission.
Question 68
The "Long Form Audit Report" (LFAR) is submitted by the Statutory Branch Auditor to:
View Explanation
LFAR is a detailed questionnaire-based report covering various aspects of branch operations (Cash, Credit, Forex, Housekeeping). It is a critical tool for the Management and RBI to assess the bank's health.
Question 69
Which accounting concept states that "For every debit, there is a corresponding credit"?
View Explanation
This concept is the foundation of the Double Entry System. Accounting Equation (Assets = Liabilities + Equity) is derived from this.
Question 70
While balancing a "Real Account" (e.g., Machinery A/c), the balance is:
View Explanation
Real accounts represent assets. An asset cannot have a negative value. Hence, the Debit side (inflow/value) is always greater than or equal to the Credit side (outflow/sale), resulting in a Debit Balance.
Question 71
When using the "Amended Cash Book" method for reconciliation, which differences are adjusted in the Cash Book itself before preparing BRS?
View Explanation
In this method, the Cash Book balance is first updated for items like Bank Charges, Interest, etc., which the bank has already passed. The BRS is then prepared only for timing differences (Cheques issued/deposited).
Question 72
The "Sinking Fund Method" of depreciation ensures that:
View Explanation
In this method, the depreciation amount is invested in outside securities. The interest earned and the annual provisions accumulate to provide enough cash to replace the asset when it is scrapped.
Question 73
Legal expenses incurred to defend the title of an existing asset in a lawsuit are classified as:
View Explanation
This is a tricky one. Legal costs to acquire an asset are Capital. Legal costs to maintain/defend the title of an existing asset are Revenue Expenditure, as they are for maintenance of the asset's status, not improvement.
Question 74
If the Drawee (Acceptor) of a bill becomes insolvent, the bill is considered:
View Explanation
Insolvency implies inability to pay. When the drawee is declared insolvent, the bill is automatically treated as dishonoured, and the holder can claim the amount (dividend) from the drawee's estate.
Question 75
Ind AS 16 deals with:
View Explanation
Ind AS 16 prescribes the accounting treatment for Property, Plant and Equipment (Fixed Assets), including recognition, measurement, and depreciation.
Question 76
Under the "Business Entity Concept", Capital invested by the owner is treated as:
View Explanation
Since the business and owner are separate entities, the money given by the owner to the business is a claim the owner has on the business, hence a Liability (Internal Liability).
Question 77
If "Sales Returns" of ?500 are wrongly posted to the debit of "Purchase Account", the Gross Profit will be:
View Explanation
This is a double whammy. Sales Return should decrease Sales (reducing profit). Purchase (Debit) increases Cost (reducing profit). You wrongly increased Cost instead of reducing Sales. Both actions reduce profit. Wait. Sales Return (Debit). Purchase (Debit). You Debited Purchase instead of Sales Return. Debit side of Trading A/c increased by 500 (Purchase) instead of Debit side increasing by 500 (Sales Return). The effect on Gross Profit is... the same? Let's re-evaluate. Correct entry: Debit Sales Return. Wrong entry: Debit Purchase. Both reduce GP by 500. So GP is correct? No, Sales Return reduces Sales. Purchase increases Cost. Both reduce GP. If I debit Purchase for 500, GP reduces by 500. If I debit Sales Return, Sales reduces, GP reduces by 500. So the error has NO effect on GP. Wait, "Posted to debit of Purchase". Sales Return is also a debit. You put a debit in the wrong debit account. Nominal accounts affect profit. Since both accounts reduce profit, the profit remains Understated by 500 (the intended amount). But if you omitted Sales Return AND added Purchase, it's double. Here, you just swapped. So GP is correct. Let's assume the question implies "Sales Return treated as Purchase". Correct effect: -Sales. Wrong effect: +Purchase. Profit = Sales - Purchase. If Sales down 500, Profit down 500. If Purchase up 500, Profit down 500. So the effect is identical. Answer: No effect/Correct? Ah, usually these questions imply "Sales Return Omitted AND Purchase Recorded". If just misposted between two expense/revenue reduction accounts, impact is nil. Let's assume the option "Understated by 1000" is the trap and "No change" isn't there. Let's look closer. Sales Return reduces Sales. Purchase increases Purchases. Both reduce Gross Profit. So if you debit Purchase INSTEAD of Sales Return, you are still reducing GP by 500. So GP is stated correctly (relative to the error). However, if the question means "Sales Return was ignored and Purchase was recorded", then GP is understated by 500 (for the purchase) and overstated by 500 (for missing sales return)? No. Missing sales return means Sales is high -> Profit High. Recording Purchase means Cost High -> Profit Low. Net effect zero. Okay, let's change the question to something clearer. "Sales of 500 recorded as Purchase". Sales (Credit) omitted, Purchase (Debit) recorded. Profit reduces by 500 (Purchase) and reduces by 500 (Missing Sales). Total Understated by 1000. Yes, let's go with "Sales recorded as Purchase".
Question 78
Which of the following is NOT an Officially Valid Document (OVD) for KYC?
View Explanation
While PAN is mandatory for many financial transactions (Income Tax purpose), it is technically NOT in the list of 6 OVDs for "Proof of Address" in KYC norms because it does not contain an address.
Question 79
For a Term Loan, the account is classified as NPA if interest or installment of principal remains overdue for a period of more than:
View Explanation
As per IRAC norms, an asset becomes Non-Performing if it remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days.
Question 80
When converting the Trial Balance of a "Non-Integral Foreign Operation" (NIFO), assets and liabilities are translated at:
View Explanation
For NIFO, assets and liabilities (both monetary and non-monetary) are translated at the Closing Rate because the investment is treated as a net investment. For Integral Operations, non-monetary items use Historical Rate.
Question 81
In "Cash Basis" of accounting, outstanding expenses are:
View Explanation
Cash basis records transactions only when cash flows. Expenses incurred but not paid (outstanding) are ignored until paid. Accrual basis records them.
Question 82
Loss of goods by fire should be recorded in:
View Explanation
Abnormal losses like fire or theft are adjusting entries that don't fit in special journals. Entry: Loss by Fire A/c Dr to Purchase A/c. This goes to Journal Proper.
Question 83
A Bill Receivable discounted with the bank was dishonoured. The bank debited the customer's account. This was not recorded in the Cash Book. To reconcile (starting from Cash Book):
View Explanation
Bank has reduced the balance (Passbook down). Cash Book is higher. To match Passbook, Subtract from Cash Book.
Question 84
"Useful Life" of an asset is:
View Explanation
Useful life is an economic estimate, not necessarily physical life. A computer may work for 10 years (physical) but be useful to a tech company for only 3 years (economic).
Question 85
Cost of overhauling an engine to improve fuel efficiency is:
View Explanation
If an expenditure increases the future economic benefits (efficiency, capacity, life) beyond the previously assessed standard of performance, it is Capital.
Question 86
Who ultimately bears the "Noting Charges"?
View Explanation
The holder pays the notary initially, but since the dishonour was the drawee's fault, the expense is recoverable from the Drawee.
Question 87
GAAP stands for:
View Explanation
GAAP refers to a common set of accounting principles, standards, and procedures that companies must follow when compiling their financial statements.
Question 88
Charging the cost of a pen to expenses instead of capitalizing it (even though it will last 2 years) is an application of:
View Explanation
Though the pen is an asset, its cost is immaterial. Tracking its depreciation is not worth the effort. Hence, Materiality allows it to be expensed.
Question 89
If the debit side of the Trial Balance is short by ?500, and a Suspense Account is opened, where will this ?500 be placed?
View Explanation
Debit is short. To balance the TB, we need an item on the Debit side. So, Suspense A/c is debited with ?500.
Question 90
Concurrent Audit is essentially a:
View Explanation
Concurrent audit is a continuous audit aimed at detecting anomalies and irregularities in transactions as they happen (or very soon after), ensuring compliance.
Question 91
According to the "Realization Concept", when should profit be recognized?
View Explanation
Realization usually occurs when goods are transferred to the buyer, transferring risks and rewards. This creates the legal right to receive payment.
Question 92
Obsolescence refers to a decrease in the value of an asset due to:
View Explanation
Obsolescence is a functional loss of value. Even if a machine is physically perfect, it may become obsolete if a newer, more efficient machine enters the market.
Question 93
A Debit Balance in the Cash Book is equivalent to:
View Explanation
Debit in Cash Book = Asset (Money we have). Credit in Pass Book = Liability for Bank (Bank owes us money). They are opposite.
Question 94
A Forward Exchange Contract is recorded in the books:
View Explanation
As per AS 11, forward contracts should be recorded at inception. The premium/discount is amortized over the life of the contract.
Question 95
Foreign Bills are often drawn in "Sets" (usually 3 parts). Why?
View Explanation
Parts are sent via different routes/mails. As soon as one part is accepted/paid, the others become void. This ensures safety in international trade.
Question 96
Ind AS 109 deals with:
View Explanation
Ind AS 109 covers Financial Instruments: Recognition, Measurement, Impairment (ECL model), and Hedge Accounting.
Question 97
If Ram's account is debited with ?500 instead of ?5000, and Shyam's account is credited with ?500 instead of ?5000, this is a:
View Explanation
The shortage of Debit (4500 in Ram) is exactly compensated by the shortage of Credit (4500 in Shyam). The Trial Balance will still agree.
Question 98
In a CBS environment, the auditor primarily focuses on:
View Explanation
Since calculations are automated, the audit focus shifts to testing the IT controls, parameter settings, and exception reports generated by the system.
Question 99
The "Historical Cost Concept" means assets are recorded at:
View Explanation
Assets are recorded at the price paid to acquire them, not at their changing market values. This ensures objectivity.
Question 100
At the end of the year, "Nominal Accounts" (Expenses and Incomes) are closed by transferring them to:
View Explanation
Nominal accounts are temporary. They are summarized in the P&L account to determine profit/loss, which is then added to Capital. Real/Personal accounts go to Balance Sheet.
Question 101
Interest on Overdraft charged by the bank (not recorded in Cash Book) will cause the Passbook balance to be _____ than the Cash Book balance.
View Explanation
Interest charged increases the Overdraft (making the balance more negative/lower). Cash Book hasn't recorded it, so it shows a better position (higher/less negative).
Question 102
Profit on sale of a fixed asset is transferred to:
View Explanation
Profit on sale is an operating gain (or non-operating depending on view, but revenue nature) and is credited to the P&L Account.
Question 103
"Preliminary Expenses" incurred for the formation of a company are treated as:
View Explanation
These are costs to bring the entity into existence. They are usually capitalized or treated as deferred revenue expenditure and written off over a period.
Question 104
An endorsement where the endorser just signs his name without specifying the endorsee is called:
View Explanation
Blank endorsement converts the bill into a bearer instrument, transferable by delivery alone.
Question 105
Under Ind AS 7, Interest paid by a non-financial enterprise is classified as:
View Explanation
Interest paid is a cost of obtaining finance. Hence, for non-financial firms, it is a Financing Activity. (For banks, it is Operating).
Question 106
The "Accounting Period Concept" suggests that the life of a business should be:
View Explanation
To provide timely information, the indefinite life of a business is cut into smaller periods (typically 12 months) for reporting.
Question 107
Errors detected AFTER the preparation of Final Accounts are rectified using:
View Explanation
Since P&L for the previous year is closed, any nominal account correction now must go through P&L Adjustment to keep current year P&L pure.
Question 108
In banking, "Value Date" refers to:
View Explanation
Sometimes entry date and value date differ. For interest calculation, the Value Date is what matters.
Question 109
Risk Based Internal Audit (RBIA) focuses on:
View Explanation
RBIA shifts focus from transaction testing to risk process testing. It prioritizes areas with inherent high risk.
Question 110
Unreconciled entries in "Inter-Office Adjustments" accounts are a major risk area for banks because:
View Explanation
If branch A debits Branch B, and Branch B doesn't credit, the money might be siphoned off. Long outstanding entries suggest control failure.
Question 111
If a business borrows ?10,000 from a bank, how does it affect the accounting equation?
View Explanation
Cash (Asset) comes in (+10,000), and Bank Loan (Liability) is created (+10,000). Equation balances.
Question 112
Goods returned by customers are recorded in:
View Explanation
Returns Inward (Sales Return) of goods sold on credit are entered here.
Question 113
Bank paid insurance premium as per Standing Instruction. This was not recorded in Cash Book. In BRS starting with Passbook balance, what to do?
View Explanation
Start: Passbook (Lower because payment made). Target: Cash Book (Higher because payment not recorded). To reach Target from Start, we must ADD.
Question 114
The "Revaluation Method" of depreciation is most suitable for:
View Explanation
For small items like tools where individual tracking is hard, they are revalued at year-end, and the difference is treated as depreciation.
Question 115
Whitewashing of a building for the first time at the time of purchase is:
View Explanation
Expenses to put an old asset into usable condition (First repairs/whitewash) are capitalized. Subsequent whitewashing is Revenue.
Question 116
In an Accommodation Bill, if X draws a bill on Y, and they share proceeds, who bears the discount charge?
View Explanation
Since both benefit from the funds, the cost of funds (discount) is shared in the same proportion as the proceeds.
Question 117
Are NBFCs required to follow Ind AS?
View Explanation
MCA mandated Ind AS for NBFCs in phases based on net worth, similar to corporates.
Question 118
"Substance over Form" implies that:
View Explanation
Example: In a Finance Lease, the lessee records the asset even though legal title is with the lessor, because in substance/reality, the lessee uses it.
Question 119
If the Suspense Account is not cleared before final accounts, where is it shown?
View Explanation
Suspense represents errors. Until found, it remains as a real balance in the Balance Sheet.
Question 120
A "System Audit" evaluates:
View Explanation
Given banks' reliance on CBS, System Audit checks security, data integrity, and IT governance.
Question 121
If "Closing Stock" appears inside the Trial Balance, it is shown in:
View Explanation
If Closing Stock appears inside the Trial Balance, it means it has already been adjusted against Purchases (Cost of Goods Sold). Therefore, it is not shown in the Trading Account but only appears as an Asset in the Balance Sheet.
Question 122
As per Section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013, the "Securities Premium Account" CANNOT be utilized for:
View Explanation
Securities Premium is a capital receipt and is restricted for specific uses like bonus shares or writing off expenses. It cannot be treated as free reserves for distributing cash dividends.
Question 123
In the Balance Sheet of a Bank, what does the item "Non-Banking Assets" represent?
View Explanation
Under the Banking Regulation Act, banks cannot hold immovable property (except for own use) for more than 7 years. Properties acquired from defaulters to recover loans are termed "Non-Banking Assets".
Question 124
In the Indirect Method of preparing a Cash Flow Statement, why is "Depreciation" added back to Net Profit?
View Explanation
Depreciation is an accounting entry, not a cash outflow. Since it was deducted to arrive at Net Profit, it must be added back to find the actual "Cash Flow from Operations".
Question 125
When shares are forfeited, the Share Capital Account is debited with:
View Explanation
The liability of the shareholder is limited to the called-up amount. When forfeiting, we reverse the capital created so far, which is the Called-up Value (not necessarily the full Face Value if final call hasn't been made).
Question 126
In a CBS environment, Inter-Branch transactions are reconciled:
View Explanation
Unlike legacy systems where IBR was a huge manual task, CBS uses a central database. A debit in Branch A and credit in Branch B happens simultaneously in the central server, ensuring automatic real-time reconciliation.
Question 127
Where are "Acceptances, Endorsements and Other Obligations" shown in a Bank's Balance Sheet?
View Explanation
These are off-balance sheet items where the bank has a potential liability (e.g., Letters of Credit, Guarantees) that will crystallize only if the customer defaults. They are reported in Schedule 12.
Question 128
A company can buy back its own shares using funds from:
View Explanation
Section 68 of the Companies Act prohibits buyback using proceeds of an earlier issue of the *same kind* of shares. It allows using Free Reserves or Securities Premium.
Question 129
If "Provision for Bad Debts" is given in the adjustment (outside Trial Balance), it involves:
View Explanation
Adjustments have a dual effect. 1. Create the expense (Debit P&L). 2. Reduce the asset value (Deduct from Sundry Debtors in Balance Sheet).
Question 130
Which of the following is a "Cash Flow from Financing Activity"?
View Explanation
Financing activities relate to capital and debt structure. Paying dividends is a return on capital to owners, hence Financing. (Interest received is Investing; Payment to suppliers is Operating).
Question 131
Interest on "Calls in Arrears" can be charged by a company at a maximum rate of:
View Explanation
As per Table F of the Companies Act, 2013, the maximum interest rate chargeable on Calls in Arrears is 10% p.a. (For Calls in Advance, it is 12% p.a.).
Question 132
Provision for Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) is debited to which item in the Bank's Profit & Loss Account?
View Explanation
In Form B (P&L Account of a Bank), there is a specific head called "Provisions and Contingencies" where provisions for NPAs, Tax, and Diminution in Investments are recorded.
Question 133
If "Wages Outstanding" is given inside the Trial Balance, how is it treated in Final Accounts?
View Explanation
Items inside the Trial Balance have already been journalized. Wages Outstanding in TB means the entry (Wages A/c Dr to Wages Outstanding A/c) is already passed. So, it only needs to go to the Balance Sheet as a Liability.
Question 134
According to the Companies Act, 2013, a company can issue shares at a discount ONLY in case of:
View Explanation
Section 53 prohibits the issue of shares at a discount, with the sole exception of "Sweat Equity Shares" issued to employees/directors for know-how or IP rights (Section 54).
Question 135
Cash Flow Statement is mandatory for Level I enterprises under which Accounting Standard?
View Explanation
AS 3 prescribes the format and requirements for the Cash Flow Statement. (Corresponding Ind AS is Ind AS 7).
Question 136
In the Balance Sheet of a Bank, "Gold" held as part of SLR requirements is classified under:
View Explanation
Schedule 8 (Investments) includes investments in Government securities, Shares, Debentures, and Gold . It is not treated as Cash.
Question 137
When share applications exceed the number of shares offered, and shares are allotted proportionately to applicants, it is called:
View Explanation
Pro-rata allotment involves allotting shares in a ratio (e.g., 2 shares for every 3 applied) when there is oversubscription, ensuring every applicant gets something.
Question 138
Arranging assets and liabilities in a specific order in the Balance Sheet is called:
View Explanation
Marshalling is the arrangement of assets and liabilities either in the order of Liquidity (most liquid first) or Permanence (most permanent first).
Question 139
In CBS, the "Day End" process ensures that:
View Explanation
The End of Day (EOD) process validates transactions, checks GL balance, calculates interest if due, and logically moves the system date forward.
Question 140
When forfeited shares are reissued, the discount on reissue cannot exceed:
View Explanation
The loss on reissue (discount) cannot exceed the amount already collected (gain on forfeiture) for those specific shares. This ensures capital is kept intact.
Question 141
In a Bank's Balance Sheet, "Silver" bullion is classified under:
View Explanation
Unlike Gold (which is an Investment), Silver is typically classified under Schedule 11: "Other Assets" in the banking balance sheet format.
Question 142
Redemption of Debentures results in:
View Explanation
Redemption means repaying the debt. It involves cash going out (Outflow) and relates to the capital structure (Financing).
Question 143
"Accrued Income" appearing in adjustments is shown in the Balance Sheet as:
View Explanation
Accrued Income is income earned but not yet received. It is a receivable, hence a Current Asset.
Question 144
Which type of Preference Shares carries the right to receive arrears of dividend from future profits if not paid in the current year?
View Explanation
In Cumulative Preference Shares, unpaid dividends accumulate and must be paid before any dividend is paid to equity shareholders.
Question 145
Capital Adequacy Ratio (CRAR) is calculated as:
View Explanation
CRAR measures a bank's capital against its risk. The denominator is Risk Weighted Assets (RWA), not Total Assets.
Question 146
If a bank wants to introduce a new deposit product with a specific interest rate structure in CBS, it is done through:
View Explanation
CBS is driven by parameters. New products are created by defining parameters (rules) in the system master, without changing the core software code.
Question 147
Which of the following is considered a "Cash Equivalent"?
View Explanation
Cash Equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible to known amounts of cash and subject to insignificant risk of changes in value (typically < 3 months maturity).
Question 148
Income Tax paid by a sole proprietor is treated as:
View Explanation
Income Tax of the proprietor is a personal expense, not a business expense. Hence, it is treated as Drawings and deducted from Capital in the Balance Sheet.
Question 149
"Authorized Capital" of a company refers to:
View Explanation
Authorized (Registered) Capital is the ceiling limit mentioned in the MOA. The company cannot issue shares beyond this without amending the MOA.
Question 150
"Bills for Collection" appears in the Bank's Balance Sheet as:
View Explanation
Bills for Collection is a service where the bank acts as an agent. It is neither an asset nor a liability of the bank until realized. It is shown as a footnote.
Question 151
Which of the following reserves CANNOT be used for the issue of fully paid Bonus Shares?
View Explanation
Bonus shares must be issued out of free reserves, securities premium, or capital redemption reserve. Revaluation Reserve is created by revaluing assets (unrealized gain) and cannot be used for issuing bonus shares as per the Companies Act.
Question 152
In the Balance Sheet of a Bank, "Inter-Office Adjustments (Net)" if debit, is shown under:
View Explanation
If the net balance of Inter-Office Adjustments is a Debit, it represents an asset (receivable) and is shown under Schedule 11. If it is a Credit, it is shown under Schedule 5 (Liabilities).
Question 153
Which of the following transactions is NOT included in the Cash Flow Statement?
View Explanation
This is a significant non-cash transaction (Investigative/Financing) where no cash enters or leaves the entity. It should be disclosed in notes but not in the body of the Cash Flow Statement.
Question 154
In CBS, the module that handles the definition of Products, Interest Rates, and Service Charges is typically called:
View Explanation
This module allows the bank to parameterize new schemes. Interest rates or charges defined here are automatically applied to all accounts linked to that product code.
Question 155
As per SEBI guidelines, if a company does not receive a minimum subscription of ___ of the issue size, it must refund the application money.
View Explanation
The Minimum Subscription clause ensures that the company raises enough funds to carry out its project. If 90% of the issue is not subscribed, the entire amount collected must be refunded.
Question 156
For a Partnership Firm, Income Tax paid is treated as:
View Explanation
This is distinct from companies. For partnerships, tax is a personal liability of the firm/partners, often treated as Drawings in accounting questions, or appropriation. However, technically, tax on firm's profit is an appropriation, but tax paid on behalf of partners is Drawings.
Question 157
Balances held with RBI for CRR maintenance are classified in the Bank's Balance Sheet under:
View Explanation
Schedule 6 specifically covers Cash in hand and Balances with the Reserve Bank of India. Schedule 7 covers balances with OTHER banks.
Question 158
Income Tax paid is usually classified as a cash flow from Operating Activities. However, if the tax can be specifically identified with a Financing activity, it is classified as:
View Explanation
Ind AS 7 states that tax cash flows should be operating unless they can be specifically identified with financing or investing activities (e.g., tax on capital gains from selling an asset is Investing).
Question 159
Companies are required to create a "Debenture Redemption Reserve" (DRR) out of profits available for dividend. What is the required percentage for NBFCs registered with RBI?
View Explanation
As per recent MCA amendments, Banking Companies, All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs), and NBFCs registered with RBI are EXEMPT from creating DRR for privately placed debentures. For other listed companies, it is also nil. DRR is mainly for unlisted non-NBFC companies (10%).
Question 160
In CBS, ensuring that the sum of debits equals the sum of credits for every transaction batch is a control known as:
View Explanation
Run-to-run totals involve checking that control totals (like total batch value) match from one processing stage to another, ensuring data completeness and accuracy.
Question 161
"Rebate on Bills Discounted" represents:
View Explanation
When a bank discounts a bill, it deducts interest for the full period upfront. If the bill matures in the *next* accounting year, the portion of interest relating to the next year is "Income Received in Advance" and is shown as a liability (Rebate on Bills Discounted).
Question 162
Interest on Partners' Capital is:
View Explanation
Interest on Capital is an appropriation of profit among partners, not a charge against profit. Hence, it appears in the P&L Appropriation A/c, not the main P&L A/c.
Question 163
Underwriting commission payable on the issue of shares cannot exceed:
View Explanation
As per the Companies Act, 2013, the maximum underwriting commission on shares is 5% of the issue price (or the rate authorized by Articles, whichever is less). For Debentures, it is 2.5%.
Question 164
Cash payments to acquire fixed assets are classified as:
View Explanation
Investing activities involve the acquisition and disposal of long-term assets and other investments not included in cash equivalents.
Question 165
In the "Notes to Accounts", banks must disclose the "Divergence in Asset Classification and Provisioning" if the divergence assessed by RBI exceeds:
View Explanation
RBI mandates disclosure of divergence if the additional provisioning required exceeds 10% of reported net profit OR if the additional Gross NPA exceeds 10% (was 15% earlier) of reported Gross NPA.
Question 166
Which of the following is an advantage of Centralized Processing in CBS?
View Explanation
Since rules are defined centrally in the Data Center, any change (like a rate cut) is applied instantly and uniformly to all accounts across all branches, eliminating local errors.
Question 167
Sweat Equity Shares issued to directors or employees are subject to a lock-in period of:
View Explanation
Shares issued as Sweat Equity are non-transferable for a period of 3 years from the date of allotment.
Question 168
What is the main difference between a "Provision" and a "Reserve"?
View Explanation
A Provision (e.g., for Tax) must be made even if there is a loss. A Reserve (e.g., General Reserve) is created only if there is profit.
Question 169
For a Banking Company, "Interest Received" on loans is classified as:
View Explanation
For a financial enterprise (Bank), lending money is the main business. Hence, interest received on loans is an Operating Cash Inflow. (For a non-financial firm, it would be Investing).
Question 170
In Schedule 9 (Advances), banks must classify advances into:
View Explanation
The statutory format requires classification by nature of facility: A. Bills Purchased and Discounted, B. Cash Credits, Overdrafts and Loans repayable on demand, C. Term Loans.
Question 171
Under an Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP), the "Vesting Period" is the period:
View Explanation
Vesting is the process of earning the right to the shares. The employee must serve the company during this period to get the right to buy shares.
Question 172
The "Disaster Recovery Site" (DR Site) in a CBS architecture is used when:
View Explanation
The DR Site is a replica of the Primary Data Center located in a different seismic zone. It takes over operations if the PDC goes down to ensure business continuity.
Question 173
"Capital Work in Progress" (CWIP) refers to:
View Explanation
Assets like a building under construction or machinery being installed are shown as CWIP in the Balance Sheet until they are capitalized (ready for use). Depreciation is NOT charged on CWIP.
Question 174
Companies are required to prepare their Balance Sheet in the format prescribed in:
View Explanation
Schedule III provides the general instructions and format (Part I for BS, Part II for P&L) for preparation of financial statements of companies.
Question 175
Schedule 1 of a Bank's Balance Sheet relates to:
View Explanation
The schedules are fixed: 1-Capital, 2-Reserves, 3-Deposits, 4-Borrowings, 5-Other Liabilities. On Asset side: 6-Cash, 7-Balances with Banks, 8-Investments, 9-Advances.
Question 176
Under Ind AS 7, Bank Overdrafts repayable on demand are usually treated as:
View Explanation
Bank overdrafts which are repayable on demand and form an integral part of an enterprise's cash management are included as a component of cash and cash equivalents (negative cash).
Question 177
Debenture Interest is paid:
View Explanation
Interest on debentures is a debt obligation. It is a "Charge against profit", meaning it must be paid regardless of whether the company makes a profit or loss.
Question 178
Recovery of Bad Debts previously written off is credited to:
View Explanation
Once written off, the debtor's account is closed. Any subsequent recovery is a gain/income and is credited to "Bad Debts Recovered A/c", which goes to the Credit side of P&L.
Question 179
In a 3-tier CBS architecture, the "Application Server" handles:
View Explanation
Tier 1 is Presentation (Client), Tier 2 is Application (Logic/Calculation), and Tier 3 is Database (Storage). The Application Server executes the core banking rules.
Question 180
As per RBI guidelines, Banks must disclose the "Provision Coverage Ratio" (PCR) in their notes to accounts. PCR is the ratio of:
View Explanation
PCR measures the cushion a bank has against its bad loans. It is calculated as (Total Provisions held for NPAs / Gross NPAs) * 100.
Question 181
Which of the following transactions will IMPROVE the "Current Ratio" of a company, if the ratio is currently 1.5:1?
View Explanation
If CR > 1, reducing both Current Assets (Cash) and Current Liabilities (Creditors) by the same amount increases the ratio. E.g., (150-50)/(100-50) = 100/50 = 2:1 (Improved from 1.5:1).
Question 182
For a "Doubtful Asset (D2)" (secured portion) which has remained in doubtful category for more than 1 year but up to 3 years, the provisioning requirement is:
View Explanation
Provisioning norms for Secured Doubtful Assets: D1 (up to 1 year) = 25%; D2 (1-3 years) = 40%; D3 (>3 years) = 100%.
Question 183
Interest and Dividends received by a manufacturing company are classified in the Cash Flow Statement as:
View Explanation
For non-financial enterprises, interest and dividends received are returns on investments made, hence classified as Investing Activities.
Question 184
A company can issue Sweat Equity Shares up to a maximum of _____ of its paid-up equity capital in a year.
View Explanation
Under Section 54, the limit is 15% of the existing paid-up equity share capital in a year or shares of the issue value of ?5 crores, whichever is higher.
Question 185
A high "Proprietary Ratio" indicates:
View Explanation
Proprietary Ratio = Shareholders' Funds / Total Assets. A high ratio means a larger portion of assets is funded by owners' equity, providing a greater safety margin for creditors.
Question 186
In CBS, what is the concept of "Maker-Checker"?
View Explanation
This is a fundamental internal control mechanism to prevent fraud and error. No single employee should be able to complete a critical financial transaction from start to end.
Question 187
Claims against the company not acknowledged as debts are shown as:
View Explanation
These are potential obligations that may arise depending on the outcome of a future event (e.g., a court case). They are disclosed in the footnotes.
Question 188
"Rights Shares" are shares offered to:
View Explanation
Section 62 of the Companies Act requires new shares to be offered first to existing shareholders to protect them from dilution of ownership.
Question 189
Which of the following is NOT eligible for SLR maintenance by banks?
View Explanation
SLR assets include Cash, Gold, and Unencumbered Approved Securities. Balances with other banks are NOT eligible for SLR (only excess balance with RBI is).
Question 190
If the estimated useful life of an asset is revised, the unamortized depreciable amount should be charged to revenue:
View Explanation
A change in useful life is a Change in Accounting Estimate (AS 10). The effect is prospective, spreading the remaining book value over the new remaining life.
Question 191
Which of the following assets is excluded from Current Assets to calculate "Quick Assets" (Liquid Assets)?
View Explanation
Quick Ratio = (Current Assets - Inventory - Prepaid Expenses) / Current Liabilities. Inventory is considered less liquid because it takes time to sell.
Question 192
An increase in "Trade Payables" (Creditors) during the year is treated in the Cash Flow Statement (Indirect Method) as:
View Explanation
Increase in Current Liabilities (Creditors) means cash is retained (not paid out). It is a source of working capital funding, so it is Added back to Net Profit to find Cash from Operations.
Question 193
Under Ind AS 16, subsequent expenditure on an item of PPE is capitalized only if:
View Explanation
Repairs that only maintain the asset are revenue expenses. Only those that enhance capacity, efficiency, or life are capitalized.
Question 194
The Statutory Central Auditors (SCA) of Public Sector Banks are appointed by:
View Explanation
While the actual appointment letter is issued by the Bank, the selection is strictly regulated by norms set by RBI and the Comptroller & Auditor General (C&AG).
Question 195
"Bills Purchased and Discounted" are shown in the Bank's Balance Sheet under:
View Explanation
Discounting a bill is effectively lending money to the customer against the security of the bill. Hence, it is an Advance (Loan).
Question 196
Dividend can be declared only out of:
View Explanation
Dividends represent a distribution of earnings. They cannot be paid out of capital reserves (like Securities Premium or CRR) or unrealized gains (Revaluation Reserve).
Question 197
The "Debt Service Coverage Ratio" (DSCR) calculation includes:
View Explanation
DSCR measures the ability to pay debt obligations. The numerator represents operating cash flow available for debt service (Profit + Non-cash exp + Interest), and the denominator is the debt obligation.
Question 198
Sales Return book overcast by ?100. The rectification entry will be:
View Explanation
Sales Return has a Debit balance. Overcast means the debit total is too high. To reduce it, we must Credit Sales Return. The corresponding debit goes to Suspense.
Question 199
Which of the following equations is INCORRECT?
View Explanation
The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital. Therefore, A+L=C is mathematically incorrect.
Question 200
Sharing User IDs and Passwords in a CBS environment leads to violation of:
View Explanation
Non-repudiation ensures that a user cannot deny having performed an action. If IDs are shared, accountability is lost, and the specific user cannot be pinpointed.
Question 201
Insurance premium paid directly by the bank as per standing instructions will result in:
View Explanation
Payment reduces the bank balance. Since it's not recorded in the Cash Book yet, the Cash Book balance remains higher.
Question 202
Provision for Discount on Debtors is calculated on:
View Explanation
Discount is offered only to good debtors. Therefore, we first remove bad debts and doubtful debts (Provision) before calculating the provision for discount.
Question 203
Which of the following is a valid use of Securities Premium under Sec 52?
View Explanation
Securities Premium can be used for: Bonus shares, Writing off preliminary expenses, Writing off issue expenses/commission, Providing for premium on redemption, and Buyback of shares.
Question 204
In a Bank Balance Sheet, "Money at Call and Short Notice" is shown under:
View Explanation
Schedule 7 covers "Balances with Banks and Money at Call and Short Notice".
Question 205
Interest Coverage Ratio is calculated as:
View Explanation
Earnings Before Interest and Tax (EBIT) represents the profit available to service debt. Dividing this by Interest expense shows how easily a company can pay interest.
Question 206
Cash flow arising from an insurance claim received for loss of stock by fire should be classified as:
View Explanation
Since the loss of stock relates to operations, the insurance recovery is also an Operating Cash Flow but should be disclosed separately as an extraordinary item.
Question 207
Under the "Unit of Production" method, depreciation is based on:
View Explanation
Depreciation = (Cost - Scrap) * (Units produced in the year / Total estimated life units). It links expense to actual usage.
Question 208
The Statutory Auditor must submit the Long Form Audit Report (LFAR) by:
View Explanation
The RBI mandates that the LFAR should be submitted by 30th June every year for the year ending 31st March.
Question 209
Securities Premium Account is shown in the Balance Sheet under:
View Explanation
It is a capital reserve and is grouped under "Reserves and Surplus" in the Equity and Liabilities part.
Question 210
What is the standard provisioning rate for "Standard Assets" (Direct Advances to Agriculture and SME)?
View Explanation
RBI mandates 0.25% provision for standard assets in Agriculture and SME sectors. For commercial real estate, it is higher (1% or 0.75%). For general advances, it is 0.40%.
Question 211
According to the "DuPont Analysis" model, Return on Equity (ROE) is decomposed into three components. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
View Explanation
DuPont Analysis breaks ROE down into: 1. Net Profit Margin (Profitability), 2. Asset Turnover (Efficiency), and 3. Financial Leverage (Equity Multiplier). Current Ratio is a liquidity ratio, not part of the DuPont identity.
Question 212
The Long Form Audit Report (LFAR) for bank branches covers which of the following areas?
View Explanation
LFAR is a comprehensive report that goes beyond financial numbers to comment on the efficacy of internal controls, asset quality, housekeeping, and MIS at the branch level.
Question 213
How are unrealized gains and losses arising from changes in foreign exchange rates treated in the Cash Flow Statement?
View Explanation
Unrealized forex gains/losses do not involve actual cash movement. However, to match the opening and closing cash equivalents (held in foreign currency), the effect of exchange rate changes is reported separately at the bottom of the statement.
Question 214
Preference shares can be redeemed ONLY out of:
View Explanation
Section 55 of the Companies Act states that redemption must happen either out of distributable profits (creating CRR) or out of the proceeds of a fresh issue of shares made for the purpose of redemption.
Question 215
Which component of Information Security Policy ensures that data is accessible only to those authorized to access it?
View Explanation
The CIA triad of security stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. Confidentiality specifically deals with restricting access to authorized personnel only.
Question 216
If an asset is sold, the Profit or Loss on sale is calculated by comparing the Sale Price with:
View Explanation
Profit/Loss = Net Sale Proceeds - Book Value on date of sale. Comparing with Original Cost is incorrect because depreciation has reduced the asset's value over time.
Question 217
If an error of principle (e.g., Capital exp treated as Revenue) is rectified in the NEXT financial year, what account is used to correct the profit impact?
View Explanation
Since the nominal accounts of the previous year are closed, any adjustment affecting profit must be routed through the Profit & Loss Adjustment Account (or shown as Prior Period Items) to avoid distorting current year's operating profit.
Question 218
"Rebate on Bills Discounted" is treated as a liability in the Balance Sheet because:
View Explanation
Banks collect discount upfront. If a bill matures next year, the portion of discount relating to next year is "Income Received in Advance," which is a liability as per the Accrual Concept.
Question 219
A company has an Interest Coverage Ratio of 8 times. This indicates:
View Explanation
Interest Coverage Ratio = EBIT / Interest. A ratio of 8 means the company earns 8 times the amount needed to pay interest, showing high solvency and safety.
Question 220
Can the Securities Premium Account be used to write off the "Discount on Issue of Debentures"?
View Explanation
Section 52 of Companies Act, 2013 specifically lists "writing off the expenses of, or the commission paid or discount allowed on, any issue of shares or debentures" as a permitted use of Securities Premium.
Question 221
For a non-financial company, "Interest Paid" on bank loans is classified as:
View Explanation
Interest is the cost of servicing debt (Capital). Since Loans are Financing activities, the interest paid on them is also a Financing outflow.
Question 222
What distinguishes "Concurrent Audit" from "Statutory Audit"?
View Explanation
Concurrent means "happening at the same time". It is an internal control process for real-time checking. Statutory audit is a legal requirement conducted after the financial year ends to certify financial statements.
Question 223
Which of the following is an application of "Data Mining" in banks?
View Explanation
Data mining involves analyzing large datasets to discover patterns and relationships. Banks use it for credit scoring, fraud detection, and targeted marketing (CRM).
Question 224
If the Debt Service Coverage Ratio (DSCR) is less than 1, it implies:
View Explanation
DSCR < 1 is a danger signal. It means Operating Cash Flow is insufficient to cover Interest + Principal repayments. The firm may default unless it borrows more or sells assets.
Question 225
Calculate the first year depreciation for an asset costing ?15,000 with a life of 5 years using "Sum of Years' Digits" (SYD) method. (Scrap value = 0).
View Explanation
Sum of digits = 1+2+3+4+5 = 15. For Year 1, remaining life is 5. Fraction = 5/15 = 1/3. Depreciation = 15,000 * 1/3 = ?5,000.
Question 226
Which of the following is a "Contingent Liability" for a bank?
View Explanation
Deposits are actual liabilities (Schedule 3). Guarantees become liabilities ONLY if the customer defaults. Hence, they are Contingent Liabilities (Schedule 12).
Question 227
The maximum limit for buyback of shares in any financial year is _____ of the total paid-up capital and free reserves of the company.
View Explanation
Section 68 restricts buyback to 25% of the aggregate of paid-up capital and free reserves.
Question 228
What is "RPO" (Recovery Point Objective) in the context of CBS Disaster Recovery?
View Explanation
RPO defines how much data you can afford to lose. If RPO is 15 mins, backups must be frequent enough so that in a crash, you lose no more than 15 mins of data. (RTO is Recovery Time Objective - how fast you are back up).
Question 229
Inventory Turnover Ratio is calculated as:
View Explanation
This ratio measures how many times a company sells and replaces its stock of goods during a period. Ideally, COGS is used; if unavailable, Sales can be used.
Question 230
What is the provisioning requirement for the "Unsecured" portion of a Doubtful Asset?
View Explanation
Regardless of the period for which the asset has remained doubtful (D1, D2, or D3), the unsecured portion (not covered by realizable value of security) must be fully provided for (100%).
Question 231
Cash paid for the purchase of Fixed Assets is:
View Explanation
Buying assets is an outflow (Application) of cash and falls under Investing Activities.
Question 232
Section 53 of the Companies Act, 2013 declares the issue of shares at a discount as:
View Explanation
Any issue of shares at a discount (except sweat equity) is void, and the company/officers are liable for penalties.
Question 233
One of the main benefits of Centralized Banking Solution (CBS) is "Anywhere Banking". This means:
View Explanation
Since data is central, the customer belongs to the bank, not just the branch. They can access services from any location.
Question 234
Operating Profit Ratio is calculated as:
View Explanation
Operating Profit (EBIT) measures profit from core business operations, excluding non-operating items like interest and tax. The ratio expresses this as a percentage of sales.
Question 235
Banks must disclose divergence in asset classification if the additional Gross NPA assessed by RBI exceeds:
View Explanation
RBI tightened the norms (previously 15%, now 10%) to ensure banks report bad loans accurately. If RBI inspection finds NPAs are under-reported by >10%, disclosure is mandatory.
Question 236
Which of the following is an "Off-Balance Sheet" item for a bank?
View Explanation
Undrawn limits are commitments. They do not appear on the BS as assets or liabilities until the customer actually draws the money. However, they represent a potential liquidity demand.
Question 237
Interest on Calls in Advance is payable by the company at a rate not exceeding:
View Explanation
As per Table F of Companies Act 2013, interest on Calls in Advance is max 12% p.a., while interest on Calls in Arrears is max 10% p.a.
Question 238
Modern CBS architecture is based on SOA. SOA stands for:
View Explanation
SOA allows different applications (like Loans, Deposits, Payments) to communicate with each other as distinct services, making the system modular and flexible.
Question 239
If Current Ratio is 2:1 and Working Capital is ?60,000, what is the amount of Current Assets?
View Explanation
CA/CL = 2/1. So CA = 2CL. Working Capital = CA - CL = 2CL - CL = CL. Given Working Capital = 60,000, so CL = 60,000. CA = 2 * CL = 1,20,000.
Question 240
Though Gold is an Investment, Silver is shown in Bank Balance Sheet under:
View Explanation
As per the Banking Regulation Act format, Silver is not considered an approved security for investment purposes in the same way as Gold. It is classified under Schedule 11 (Other Assets).
Question 241
If interest is compounded quarterly, the "Effective Annual Rate" (EAR) will be:
View Explanation
When compounding occurs more frequently than once a year (e.g., quarterly), interest is earned on interest more often, making the Effective Annual Rate (EAR) higher than the stated Nominal Rate.
Question 242
The "Net Present Value" (NPV) method assumes that intermediate cash flows are reinvested at:
View Explanation
A key assumption of NPV is that cash flows generated during the project life are reinvested at the firm's Cost of Capital (Required Rate of Return), which is considered more realistic than the IRR assumption.
Question 243
Why is the "Cost of Debt" generally lower than the "Cost of Equity"?
View Explanation
Interest payments reduce the taxable income of the company, effectively lowering the cost of debt by the tax rate [Kd = I(1-t)]. Equity dividends are paid out of post-tax profits and offer no tax shield.
Question 244
According to Modigliani-Miller (MM) Hypothesis "Proposition I" (without taxes), the value of a firm is:
View Explanation
MM Proposition I (No Tax) states that in a perfect market, how a firm finances its operations (Debt vs Equity) is irrelevant to its total value. Value is determined by its earning power and risk of assets, not funding mix.
Question 245
The "Operating Cycle" of a manufacturing firm represents the time gap between:
View Explanation
Operating Cycle = Inventory Period + Accounts Receivable Period. It is the duration from buying raw materials to collecting cash from customers.
Question 246
According to the "Rule of 72", if the interest rate is 8% p.a., an investment will double in approximately:
View Explanation
Rule of 72 formula: Years to Double ˜ 72 / Interest Rate. Here, 72 / 8 = 9 years.
Question 247
If the Net Present Value (NPV) of a project is ZERO, then the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is:
View Explanation
IRR is defined as the discount rate at which NPV is zero. If NPV calculated at the cost of capital is zero, then the IRR must be exactly equal to that cost of capital.
Question 248
Under Method I of the Tandon Committee for assessing Maximum Permissible Bank Finance (MPBF), the borrower is required to contribute:
View Explanation
In Method I, MPBF = 0.75 * (Total Current Assets - Current Liabilities). This implies the borrower finances 25% of the Working Capital Gap (CA-CL) from long-term sources.
Question 249
According to Gordon's Dividend Growth Model, the market value of a share depends on:
View Explanation
Gordon's Formula: P = D1 / (Ke - g). It values a stock based on the next expected dividend (D1), the cost of equity (Ke), and the constant growth rate (g).
Question 250
Financial Leverage becomes "Favorable" (Positive) only when:
View Explanation
If ROI > Cost of Debt, using debt magnifies the Earnings Per Share (EPS) for shareholders (Trading on Equity). If ROI < Cost of Debt, leverage destroys value.
Question 251
A "Perpetuity" is an annuity that:
View Explanation
Perpetuity is a stream of constant cash flows that continues indefinitely. PV of Perpetuity = Annual Cash Flow / Discount Rate.
Question 252
A major limitation of the "Payback Period" method is that it:
View Explanation
Payback period only focuses on how quickly the initial investment is recovered. It ignores profitability (total cash flows) and the Time Value of Money (unless discounted payback is used).
Question 253
In the CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model), "Beta" measures:
View Explanation
Beta indicates how volatile a stock is compared to the overall market. Beta > 1 means higher volatility than the market; Beta < 1 means lower volatility.
Question 254
In Financial Management, "Wealth Maximization" is considered superior to "Profit Maximization" because:
View Explanation
Profit maximization is vague, short-term, and ignores risk/timing. Wealth maximization (maximizing stock price/NPV) accounts for timing, cash flows, and risk, serving the long-term interest of shareholders.
Question 255
"Net Working Capital" refers to:
View Explanation
Gross Working Capital is Total Current Assets. Net Working Capital is the difference between Current Assets and Current Liabilities, representing the liquidity cushion.
Question 256
An "Annuity Due" differs from an "Ordinary Annuity" in that payments are made:
View Explanation
In an Ordinary Annuity, cash flows occur at the end of the period (e.g., bond interest). In Annuity Due, cash flows occur at the beginning (e.g., rent, insurance premium).
Question 257
The "Discounted Payback Period" will always be ______ than the simple "Payback Period" for the same project (assuming positive discount rate).
View Explanation
Because future cash flows are discounted (reduced in value), it takes more time (more years) to recover the initial investment in present value terms compared to nominal terms.
Question 258
"Degree of Operating Leverage" (DOL) measures the sensitivity of:
View Explanation
DOL measures how much Operating Profit (EBIT) changes for a 1% change in Sales. It reflects business risk arising from fixed operating costs. (DFL measures EPS sensitivity to EBIT).
Question 259
According to Walter’s Model, if the firm’s Return on Investment (r) is greater than its Cost of Capital (k), the firm should:
View Explanation
If r > k, the firm can earn more on the money than the shareholders can earn elsewhere. Therefore, to maximize value, the firm should retain all earnings and reinvest them.
Question 260
The "Cost of Retained Earnings" is usually estimated to be:
View Explanation
Retained earnings involve an opportunity cost. Shareholders forgo dividends to let the firm reinvest. They expect a return equal to what they would demand on equity shares (Ke).
Question 261
Which of the following is a "Spontaneous Source" of working capital financing?
View Explanation
Spontaneous sources arise naturally from day-to-day business operations (like buying goods on credit creates accounts payable). They expand automatically as sales expand.
Question 262
Yield to Maturity (YTM) of a bond is the rate that equates:
View Explanation
YTM is the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) of the bond. It discounts all future coupon payments and principal repayment to the current market price of the bond.
Question 263
The "Indifference Point" (EBIT-EPS Analysis) refers to the level of EBIT where:
View Explanation
At the indifference point, the firm is indifferent between choosing Debt plan or Equity plan because the EPS remains identical. Below this EBIT level, equity is better; above it, debt is better.
Question 264
A project is acceptable based on the "Profitability Index" (PI) method if:
View Explanation
PI = PV of Cash Inflows / Initial Investment. If PI > 1, it means the project generates more value than it costs (NPV is positive), so it should be accepted.
Question 265
Combined Leverage measures the total risk of the firm and is calculated as:
View Explanation
Combined Leverage = Degree of Operating Leverage × Degree of Financial Leverage. It measures the sensitivity of EPS to changes in Sales.
Question 266
If Current Assets = ?200 Lakhs and Current Liabilities = ?200 Lakhs, then:
View Explanation
Net Working Capital = CA - CL. If CA = CL, Net Working Capital is zero. This implies no long-term funds are used to finance current assets.
Question 267
According to the "Residual Theory of Dividends", a firm should pay dividends only when:
View Explanation
This theory views dividends as a passive residual. Priority is given to reinvesting in profitable projects. Only if funds remain, dividend is paid.
Question 268
The cost of raising an *additional* rupee of capital is called:
View Explanation
Marginal cost is the incremental cost of new capital. It is the relevant rate for evaluating new investment proposals.
Question 269
A Sinking Fund factor is used to calculate:
View Explanation
If you need ?10 Lakhs after 5 years to repay a bond, the Sinking Fund factor helps you calculate how much you need to save annually to reach that target.
Question 270
"Macaulay Duration" measures:
View Explanation
Macaulay Duration is a measure of a bond's interest rate sensitivity. It represents the weighted average time to receive the bond's cash flows.
Question 271
The "Pecking Order Theory" suggests that firms prioritize financing sources in which order?
View Explanation
Firms prefer internal funds (Retained Earnings) first because they are cheapest and safest. Next is Debt. External Equity is the last resort due to high costs and dilution.
Question 272
"Sensitivity Analysis" in capital budgeting involves:
View Explanation
Sensitivity Analysis helps identify which variables (like sales price or raw material cost) the project is most sensitive to, indicating where the risk lies.
Question 273
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued by corporates to raise:
View Explanation
CPs are used by highly rated corporates to meet short-term working capital requirements at rates typically lower than bank interest rates.
Question 274
A Share Buyback is economically equivalent to:
View Explanation
Buyback returns excess cash to shareholders, similar to a dividend. However, it provides tax advantages (Capital Gains tax vs Dividend Tax) and signals management confidence.
Question 275
For a given nominal interest rate and time period, the Future Value will be highest if compounding is done:
View Explanation
More frequent compounding results in interest being earned on interest sooner, leading to a higher final amount. Daily > Quarterly > Annual.
Question 276
When evaluating mutually exclusive projects, if NPV and IRR give conflicting rankings, which method should be preferred?
View Explanation
NPV is preferred because it measures the absolute addition to shareholder wealth and uses a realistic reinvestment rate (Cost of Capital), whereas IRR assumes reinvestment at the IRR itself, which may be unrealistic.
Question 277
Which weights are theoretically superior for calculating WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital)?
View Explanation
Market values reflect the current economic value of the capital employed. Using market value weights aligns the WACC with the actual cost of raising new capital in the market today.
Question 278
The "Optimal Capital Structure" is the mix of debt and equity that:
View Explanation
The goal is to find the cheapest mix of funds. Lower WACC means higher Net Present Value of future cash flows, thus maximizing firm value.
Question 279
Tandon Committee Method II for MPBF requires a minimum Current Ratio of:
View Explanation
Method II ensures that the borrower finances 25% of Total Current Assets from long-term sources, resulting in a Current Ratio of 1.33:1.
Question 280
If the Coupon Rate of a bond is LESS than its Yield to Maturity (YTM), the bond will trade at:
View Explanation
If the bond pays less interest (Coupon) than the market expects (YTM), its price must fall below face value to offer a competitive yield to the investor.
Question 281
The process of calculating the Present Value of future cash flows is known as:
View Explanation
Discounting is the reverse of compounding. It determines what a future amount is worth today, given a specific interest rate.
Question 282
The Net Operating Income (NOI) Theory of Capital Structure assumes that:
View Explanation
NOI theory suggests that the benefits of cheaper debt are exactly offset by the increasing cost of equity (higher risk), leaving the overall WACC (Ko) and Firm Value unchanged.
Question 283
Issuing Bonus Shares results in:
View Explanation
Bonus shares convert free reserves into share capital. The total Net Worth (Capital + Reserves) remains the same; only the composition changes.
Question 284
As the discount rate (interest rate) increases, the Present Value of a future sum will:
View Explanation
There is an inverse relationship. A higher discount rate means money loses value faster over time, so the current worth of a future sum is lower.
Question 285
Calculate the Operating Cycle if: Inventory Holding Period = 60 days, Receivables Collection Period = 45 days, Creditors Payment Period = 30 days.
View Explanation
Gross Operating Cycle = Inventory Period + Receivables Period = 60 + 45 = 105 Days. (Note: Net Operating Cycle would be 105 - 30 = 75 days. Usually "Operating Cycle" implies Gross unless specified).
Question 286
The "Trade-off Theory" of capital structure argues that a firm balances:
View Explanation
Firms take on debt to get tax shields (benefit), but only up to a point where the risk of bankruptcy (financial distress cost) starts outweighing the tax benefit.
Question 287
Formula for Cost of Equity (Ke) under CAPM is:
View Explanation
Ke = Risk Free Rate + [Beta * (Market Return - Risk Free Rate)]. This adds a risk premium to the safe rate based on the stock's volatility.
Question 288
The "Accounting Rate of Return" (ARR) method uses:
View Explanation
Unlike other methods (NPV, IRR, Payback) which use Cash Flows, ARR uses Accounting Profit from the P&L account.
Question 289
For a Zero Coupon Bond, the Duration is:
View Explanation
Since there are no interim coupon payments, the entire cash flow occurs at maturity. Thus, the weighted average time to receive cash flow is exactly the maturity period.
Question 290
A policy of "Stable Dividend" usually means:
View Explanation
Companies maintain stable dividends to signal consistency and reliability to investors, avoiding sharp drops even when profits dip temporarily.
Question 291
A firm with high Operating Leverage and high Financial Leverage is considered:
View Explanation
High operating leverage means high fixed costs. High financial leverage means high debt/interest. A small drop in sales can lead to massive losses or bankruptcy.
Question 292
A "Cash Budget" helps management to:
View Explanation
It is a forecasting tool that estimates cash inflows and outflows, ensuring the firm has enough liquidity to meet obligations.
Question 293
Calculate the Effective Annual Rate (EAR) if the nominal rate is 12% compounded monthly.
View Explanation
Formula: EAR = (1 + r/n)^n - 1. Here r=0.12, n=12. EAR = (1 + 0.01)^12 - 1 = 1.1268 - 1 = 0.1268 or 12.68%.
Question 294
Which method allows ranking of projects with different investment outlays?
View Explanation
NPV gives an absolute value which favors larger projects. PI (Benefit-Cost Ratio) gives a relative measure (Value per rupee invested), making it better for ranking projects of different sizes.
Question 295
The "Cost of Preference Share Capital" is calculated as:
View Explanation
Preference dividends are not tax-deductible, so no tax adjustment is made. Cost = Dp / NP.
Question 296
A bond will sell at a "Premium" when:
View Explanation
If the bond pays more interest than the market demands, investors will pay more than the face value to acquire it.
Question 297
Costs associated with bankruptcy or financial distress (like legal fees, loss of customers) are known as:
View Explanation
These costs offset the tax benefits of debt in the Trade-off Theory, suggesting an optimal level of debt exists.
Question 298
The "Modigliani-Miller (MM) Dividend Irrelevance Theory" assumes:
View Explanation
MM argue that in a perfect world without taxes or transaction costs, dividend policy does not affect share price; investors can create their own dividends by selling shares.
Question 299
A very high Current Ratio may indicate:
View Explanation
While a high ratio shows safety, too high means cash is not being invested or inventory is not being sold, indicating poor asset management.
Question 300
Which formula represents the Present Value (PV) of a single future sum?
View Explanation
To find the present value, we divide the future value by the compounding factor (1+r)^n.
Question 301
Modigliani-Miller Proposition II (with taxes) states that the Cost of Equity (Ke) increases as:
View Explanation
As a firm takes on more debt (higher D/E ratio), the financial risk to shareholders increases. Shareholders demand a higher return (Ke) to compensate for this added risk.
Question 302
The "Modified Internal Rate of Return" (MIRR) addresses which major flaw of the standard IRR method?
View Explanation
Standard IRR assumes cash flows are reinvested at the IRR rate (often unrealistic). MIRR assumes reinvestment at the Cost of Capital (WACC), providing a more accurate picture of profitability.
Question 303
Using the "Rule of 69", if the interest rate is 10%, the doubling period is approximately:
View Explanation
Rule of 69 Formula: Doubling Period = 0.35 + (69 / Interest Rate). Here, 0.35 + (69/10) = 0.35 + 6.9 = 7.25 years. This is more accurate for continuous compounding.
Question 304
Under the Chore Committee recommendations, MPBF is calculated as:
View Explanation
The Chore Committee reinforced the adoption of Tandon Method II: MPBF = (Total Current Assets * 0.75) - Current Liabilities (excluding bank borrowings). This ensures a higher current ratio.
Question 305
A Stock Split (e.g., 1 share of ?10 becomes 2 shares of ?5) results in:
View Explanation
Stock split increases the number of shares and reduces the face value per share proportionately. It does not change the total capital or reserves, unlike a Bonus Issue which capitalizes reserves.
Question 306
How do "Floatation Costs" affect the Cost of New Equity?
View Explanation
Floatation costs (issue expenses) reduce the "Net Proceeds" the company receives from the issue. Since the denominator (Net Proceeds) decreases, the calculated Cost of Capital increases.
Question 307
The relationship between Bond Price and Market Interest Rate (Yield) is:
View Explanation
When interest rates rise, existing bonds with lower coupon rates become less attractive, so their price falls. Conversely, when rates fall, bond prices rise.
Question 308
The "Risk-Adjusted Discount Rate" (RADR) method accounts for risk by:
View Explanation
Under RADR, a higher discount rate (Risk-Free Rate + Risk Premium) is used for riskier projects, which lowers the Present Value of future inflows, making the acceptance criteria stricter.
Question 309
Negative Net Working Capital occurs when:
View Explanation
This indicates a liquidity crisis where short-term obligations exceed short-term assets. However, in some sectors like retail (supermarkets), this might be a strategy (using supplier credit to fund inventory).
Question 310
At the "Financial Break-even Point", the Earnings Per Share (EPS) is:
View Explanation
Financial Break-even Point is the level of EBIT at which EPS is zero. It is the point where operating profit is just enough to cover fixed financial charges (Interest + Preference Dividend).
Question 311
Which factor would you use to calculate the monthly EMI for a Housing Loan?
View Explanation
A loan is a lump sum received today (PV), which is repaid in installments (Annuity). To equate the loan amount to the stream of EMIs, we use PVIFA.
Question 312
As the Debt-Equity ratio increases beyond an optimal point, the "Cost of Debt" starts rising because:
View Explanation
Excessive debt increases the probability of bankruptcy. Lenders compensate for this increased credit risk by charging higher interest rates.
Question 313
Factoring converts Credit Sales into:
View Explanation
Factoring allows a firm to sell its accounts receivable (invoices) to a Factor for immediate cash (up to 80-90%), improving liquidity.
Question 314
Current Yield of a bond is calculated as:
View Explanation
Current yield measures the return based on the current market price, ignoring capital gains/losses upon maturity.
Question 315
A policy of paying a low constant dividend per share plus an extra dividend in years of high profit is called:
View Explanation
This policy gives shareholders a reliable steady income while allowing the firm to share prosperity in boom years without committing to a permanently high dividend.
Question 316
In Capital Budgeting, "Real Options" refer to:
View Explanation
Traditional NPV ignores future flexibility. Real Options approach values the ability to change course (e.g., abandoning a failing project early), adding value to the investment.
Question 317
Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)?
View Explanation
CAPM assumes "Homogeneous Expectations" - that all investors have the same expectations regarding expected returns, variances, and correlations.
Question 318
The "Baumol Model" of Cash Management is similar to which Inventory Management model?
View Explanation
The Baumol Model balances the "Ordering Cost" (Transaction cost of selling securities) against the "Carrying Cost" (Opportunity cost of holding cash) to find the optimal cash balance, just like EOQ.
Question 319
If EBIT is equal to the Indifference Point level:
View Explanation
The indifference point is specifically calculated to find the EBIT level where the EPS outcome is identical regardless of the financing option chosen.
Question 320
In a loan amortization schedule with constant EMI, as time passes:
View Explanation
In the early years, the outstanding principal is high, so interest is high. As principal is repaid, interest drops, allowing a larger portion of the fixed EMI to go towards principal repayment.
Question 321
In the "Certainty Equivalent" (CE) method of risk analysis:
View Explanation
Instead of adjusting the rate (RADR), CE adjusts the numerator (Cash Flows) by multiplying uncertain flows with a CE coefficient (0 to 1) to get certain flows, then discounts them at the risk-free rate.
Question 322
Which cost is associated with holding inventory?
View Explanation
Carrying costs are the costs of holding inventory in the warehouse. Ordering costs are associated with placing orders. Stockout costs arise when inventory is exhausted.
Question 323
According to the "Tax Preference Theory", investors may prefer low dividends and high retained earnings if:
View Explanation
Retained earnings lead to share price appreciation (Capital Gains). If capital gains are taxed at a lower rate than dividend income (or deferred), investors prefer retention over payout.
Question 324
The value of a Perpetual Bond (Console) paying annual interest 'I' is calculated as:
View Explanation
A perpetual bond has no maturity. Its value is simply the annual interest divided by the yield (discount rate), based on the perpetuity formula.
Question 325
MM Proposition II (Without Taxes) states that as leverage increases, the Cost of Equity (Ke):
View Explanation
Cheaper debt reduces WACC, but increased financial risk raises Ke. MM II argues these exactly cancel out, keeping overall WACC constant.
Question 326
The "Just-In-Time" (JIT) inventory system aims to:
View Explanation
JIT is a lean manufacturing strategy. By eliminating idle stock, it minimizes storage, insurance, and obsolescence costs, though it increases the risk of stockouts.
Question 327
Retained Earnings have an "Implicit Cost" because:
View Explanation
Explicit costs involve cash outflow (interest). Implicit costs are Opportunity Costs. The cost of retained earnings is the return shareholders could have earned if the money was distributed.
Question 328
To calculate the accumulated value of a systematic investment plan (SIP) at the end of the tenure, you would use the formula for:
View Explanation
SIP involves a series of equal payments at regular intervals. We want to know the total value at the end (Future), so FV of Annuity is used.
Question 329
In a "Replacement Decision" (replacing old machine with new), the relevant cash flows are:
View Explanation
Decision making focuses on "what changes". Only the extra cash inflow or cost saving generated by the new machine over the old one is relevant.
Question 330
Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) is calculated as:
View Explanation
DFL measures the impact of interest (fixed financial cost). It is Operating Profit (EBIT) divided by Profit Before Tax (EBT). DFL = EBIT / (EBIT - Interest).
Question 331
The "Traditional View" of Capital Structure suggests that:
View Explanation
Unlike MM theory, the Traditional View argues that judicious use of debt initially lowers the WACC (Ko) up to a point. Beyond this point, rising financial risk causes Ke and Kd to rise, increasing WACC. The lowest point of the U-shaped WACC curve is the optimal structure.
Question 332
A "Decision Tree Analysis" is most useful in capital budgeting when:
View Explanation
Decision trees map out sequential decisions and uncertain outcomes (with probabilities), allowing managers to evaluate complex, multi-stage investment proposals.
Question 333
While "Duration" estimates the linear relationship between bond price and yield, "Convexity" accounts for:
View Explanation
Duration assumes a straight line relationship, which is inaccurate for large rate changes. Convexity measures the curvature, showing that bond prices rise more when rates fall than they drop when rates rise.
Question 334
The Nayak Committee recommended that for SSI units with working capital limits up to ?5 Crore, the bank should finance a minimum of:
View Explanation
Based on a working capital cycle of 3 months (25% of year), the requirement is 25% of turnover. The promoter brings 5%, and the bank provides 20% as a minimum limit.
Question 335
When calculating the "Cost of Redeemable Debt", which factor is NOT considered?
View Explanation
Cost of Debt depends on interest, tax shield, and redemption terms (discount/premium). Dividend Payout Ratio is relevant for Cost of Equity, not Debt.
Question 336
The exact Fisher Equation relating Nominal Rate (r), Real Rate (R), and Inflation (i) is:
View Explanation
While r = R + i is a common approximation, the precise relationship accounts for the cross-product of real rate and inflation: r = R + i + (R*i). Thus, (1+r) is the product of (1+R) and (1+i).
Question 337
The "Bird-in-the-Hand" theory of dividend policy implies that:
View Explanation
Proposed by Gordon and Lintner, this theory argues that dividends are less risky than future capital appreciation. Therefore, a higher dividend payout reduces the cost of equity and increases share price.
Question 338
Calculate the Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) if EBIT is ?1,00,000, Interest is ?20,000, and Tax rate is 30%.
View Explanation
DFL = EBIT / (EBIT - Interest). DFL = 1,00,000 / (1,00,000 - 20,000) = 1,00,000 / 80,000 = 1.25. Tax rate is irrelevant for DFL calculation (unless Preference Dividend exists).
Question 339
A project may have "Multiple Internal Rates of Return" (Multiple IRRs) if:
View Explanation
When the direction of cash flows changes more than once (e.g., heavy maintenance cost in year 5 causing a net outflow), the IRR equation can have multiple mathematical solutions, making IRR unreliable.
Question 340
How does opening a Letter of Credit (LC) for raw material purchase affect the borrower's Working Capital?
View Explanation
An LC (especially Usance LC) allows the buyer to receive goods now and pay later. This creates "Sundry Creditors," which is a source of spontaneous working capital financing.
Question 341
The Price-Earnings (P/E) Ratio is calculated as:
View Explanation
The P/E ratio indicates how much the market is willing to pay for every rupee of earnings generated by the company. A high P/E suggests high growth expectations.
Question 342
"Agency Costs" in capital structure arise due to the conflict of interest between:
View Explanation
Managers might pursue personal goals (like expensive jets) over shareholder wealth (Agency cost of equity). Shareholders might take high risks to shift loss to debt-holders (Agency cost of debt).
Question 343
The "Marginal Cost of Capital" (MCC) schedule jumps (breaks) upwards when:
View Explanation
This point is called the "Break Point". Once retained earnings are used up, the firm must issue new shares (incurring floatation costs), which raises the WACC.
Question 344
A "Deferred Annuity" is one where:
View Explanation
Example: A pension plan where you invest now, but the annuity payments (pension) start only after you retire (say, after 10 years).
Question 345
The "Clientele Effect" suggests that:
View Explanation
Firms attract a specific clientele based on their payout policy. Changing the policy might alienate the existing shareholder base and affect the stock price.
Question 346
The situation where a firm has more acceptable projects (Positive NPV) than it has funds available to invest is called:
View Explanation
Under Capital Rationing, the firm must select the combination of projects that maximizes total NPV within the budget constraint (often using Profitability Index).
Question 347
The "Cash Conversion Cycle" (CCC) is calculated as:
View Explanation
CCC measures the time between paying for raw materials and receiving cash from sales. A shorter cycle is better for liquidity.
Question 348
Financial Leverage is considered "Unfavorable" when:
View Explanation
If the firm earns less on its assets (ROI) than the interest it pays on debt, using debt reduces the return to shareholders (Negative Leverage).
Question 349
"Book Value per Share" is calculated as:
View Explanation
Book Value represents the net worth attributable to equity shareholders based on the historical accounting figures, not market value.
Question 350
According to MM Theory WITH Corporate Taxes, the value of a levered firm (Vl) is equal to:
View Explanation
With taxes, debt provides a tax shield. The value of the firm increases by the Present Value of the Tax Shield, which is Debt * Tax Rate (Dt). So Vl = Vu + Dt.
Question 351
In the Security Market Line (SML) graph, if a stock lies ABOVE the SML line, it is considered:
View Explanation
If a stock is above the SML, it is offering a higher expected return than what CAPM predicts for its level of risk. Hence, it is attractive/undervalued and should be bought.
Question 352
When evaluating a new project, which of the following costs should be IGNORED (treated as irrelevant)?
View Explanation
Sunk costs are past costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered (e.g., money spent on market research last year). They should not affect the decision to accept/reject a project today.
Question 353
Treasury Bills are instruments of the money market issued by:
View Explanation
T-Bills are short-term sovereign debt instruments issued by the Central Government (via RBI) to meet short-term liquidity mismatches. They are risk-free.
Question 354
Can a company declare dividends if it has incurred a loss in the current year?
View Explanation
Companies Act allows declaring dividend out of reserves if current profits are insufficient, provided conditions regarding rate of dividend and withdrawal amount are met.
Question 355
The Present Value of a perpetuity that grows at a constant rate 'g' is calculated as:
View Explanation
Formula: PV = CF1 / (k - g). This is used when cash flows grow forever at a constant rate (e.g., valuation of a stock with constant dividend growth).
Question 356
Which bond is MORE volatile (sensitive) to interest rate changes?
View Explanation
Lower coupon bonds have higher Duration (more of their value comes from the distant principal repayment). Higher duration means higher price volatility when rates change.
Question 357
If a firm has ZERO fixed operating costs, its Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) will be:
View Explanation
DOL = Contribution / EBIT. If Fixed Cost is 0, then Contribution = EBIT. So, DOL = Contribution / Contribution = 1. This implies no operating leverage (1% change in sales = 1% change in EBIT).
Question 358
A company is said to be "Over-capitalized" when:
View Explanation
Over-capitalization doesn't mean too much money. It means the capital base is too large relative to the earnings, leading to low dividend rates and falling share prices.
Question 359
A "Conservative" Working Capital Financing Policy involves:
View Explanation
A conservative policy minimizes risk by using safe long-term funds for everything, even temporary needs. This increases safety (high liquidity) but reduces profitability (higher cost of long-term funds).
Question 360
What is the purpose of "Post-Audit" in Capital Budgeting?
View Explanation
Post-Audit provides feedback, helps identify why forecasts went wrong, and improves future decision-making. It is a control mechanism.
Question 361
An Indian citizen leaves India for employment abroad on 25th September 2023. He has never left India before. For the Financial Year 2023-24, his residential status will be:
View Explanation
He stays in India from 1st April to 25th Sept (approx 178 days). Since he leaves for employment, the 60-day rule is replaced by 182 days. Since 178 < 182, he is a Non-Resident.
Question 362
Input Tax Credit (ITC) under GST CANNOT be claimed for:
View Explanation
Section 17(5) of the CGST Act blocks ITC for goods that are lost, stolen, destroyed, written off, or disposed of by way of gift or free samples.
Question 363
"Prime Cost" is the aggregate of:
View Explanation
Prime Cost represents the total direct costs of production (Material, Labor, and Expenses) before adding any overheads.
Question 364
Under Section 194A, TDS is deducted on interest (other than securities) paid by banks to resident individuals if the amount exceeds _____ in a financial year (for senior citizens).
View Explanation
The threshold limit for TDS on interest income for Senior Citizens is ?50,000. For others, it is ?40,000.
Question 365
If Fixed Cost is ?40,000 and Contribution per Unit is ?10, the Break-Even Point (in units) is:
View Explanation
BEP (Units) = Fixed Cost / Contribution per Unit = 40,000 / 10 = 4,000 units.
Question 366
India follows the "Dual GST" model. This means:
View Explanation
For intra-state supply, both CGST (Centre) and SGST (State) are levied concurrently. This concurrent taxation power defines the Dual GST model.
Question 367
If Actual Cost is LESS than Standard Cost, the Variance is termed as:
View Explanation
Spending less than the standard (budgeted) amount increases profit, so it is a Favorable Variance.
Question 368
Liability for payment of Advance Tax arises if the estimated tax liability of the assessee for the year is:
View Explanation
As per Section 208, every person whose estimated tax liability for the year is ?10,000 or more is liable to pay advance tax.
Question 369
In "Zero-Based Budgeting" (ZBB), the budgeting process starts from:
View Explanation
ZBB does not take the previous year's budget as a base. Every activity/expense must be justified from scratch as if it were new.
Question 370
A dealer opting for the GST "Composition Scheme" CANNOT:
View Explanation
Composition dealers cannot collect tax from customers or claim Input Tax Credit. They must pay a small percentage of turnover from their own pocket and issue a "Bill of Supply" instead of a Tax Invoice.
Question 371
Profit Volume (PV) Ratio is calculated as:
View Explanation
PV Ratio indicates the rate at which profit is earned. Contribution = Sales - Variable Cost.
Question 372
Deferred Tax Assets (DTA) arise when:
View Explanation
If Taxable Income > Accounting Income, you pay more tax now but will pay less later. This prepayment creates an Asset (DTA). Example: Disallowance of expenses in tax that are allowed in books.
Question 373
Process Costing is most suitable for industries where:
View Explanation
In Process Costing, costs are accumulated for each process/stage because the product moves continuously from one process to another.
Question 374
IGST (Integrated GST) is levied on:
View Explanation
IGST is collected by the Centre on inter-state transactions and imports. It effectively replaces the sum of CGST and SGST.
Question 375
Material Usage Variance is calculated as:
View Explanation
Usage Variance isolates the efficiency of material use. It compares quantities allowed (Standard) vs used (Actual), valued at the standard price.
Question 376
Short Term Capital Gain (STCG) on the sale of listed equity shares (where STT is paid) is taxed at:
View Explanation
Under Section 111A, STCG on listed equity shares is taxed at a concessional rate of 15% (plus surcharge/cess).
Question 377
A "Master Budget" is essentially:
View Explanation
The Master Budget aggregates all sub-budgets to present the overall plan of the organization, typically culminating in a Budgeted P&L and Balance Sheet.
Question 378
Which cost is NOT recorded in the books of accounts but is relevant for decision making?
View Explanation
Opportunity Cost is the benefit foregone from the next best alternative. It is an implicit cost used in decision-making but not a cash outflow recorded in books.
Question 379
"Margin of Safety" is the difference between:
View Explanation
Margin of Safety indicates how much sales can fall before the company starts making a loss. Higher MoS means lower risk.
Question 380
Under the "Reverse Charge Mechanism" (RCM) in GST, the liability to pay tax lies with:
View Explanation
Normally, the supplier pays tax. Under RCM, the liability shifts to the recipient (e.g., a registered dealer buying from an unregistered dealer, or specific services like GTA).
Question 381
The maximum deduction available under Section 80C (including 80CCC and 80CCD(1)) of the Income Tax Act is:
View Explanation
The aggregate limit for deductions under sections 80C, 80CCC, and 80CCD(1) is currently capped at ?1.5 Lakh per financial year.
Question 382
Job Costing is most appropriate for:
View Explanation
Job Costing is used when production is not continuous and each product/job is unique according to customer specifications (e.g., Printing, Repair shops).
Question 383
Labor Efficiency Variance arises due to the difference between:
View Explanation
Efficiency Variance measures productivity. If workers take more time (Actual Hours) than allowed (Standard Hours) to produce the output, the variance is Adverse.
Question 384
Under Section 139A, quoting PAN is mandatory for cash deposits in a bank account aggregating to _____ or more in a financial year.
View Explanation
A recent rule change mandates PAN/Aadhaar for cash deposits or withdrawals aggregating to ?20 Lakh or more in a financial year, or for opening a current account.
Question 385
The aggregate turnover threshold limit for mandatory GST registration for goods suppliers in most states (excluding special category) is:
View Explanation
For exclusive suppliers of goods, the threshold is ?40 Lakh. For service providers (and some goods suppliers), it remains ?20 Lakh.
Question 386
When there is a "Limiting Factor" (Key Factor) like shortage of raw material, product mix decision should be based on:
View Explanation
To maximize profit with scarce resources, a firm must prioritize products that yield the highest contribution per unit of the scarce resource (e.g., Contribution per kg of material).
Question 387
Which of the following items is NOT included in a Cash Budget?
View Explanation
Cash Budget records only actual cash inflows and outflows. Depreciation is a non-cash expense and is excluded.
Question 388
"Unit Costing" or "Single Output Costing" is suitable for:
View Explanation
Unit costing is used where a single standard product is produced continuously (identical units). Examples: Bricks, Coal, Cement.
Question 389
Income of a minor child is clubbed with the income of the parent:
View Explanation
Under Section 64(1A), a minor's income is clubbed with the parent having the higher income. Exception: Income earned through manual work or skill/talent of the minor.
Question 390
Which of the following is treated as a "Supply" under GST even if made without consideration?
View Explanation
Schedule I of the CGST Act specifies activities to be treated as Supply even without consideration. This includes disposal of business assets where Input Tax Credit has been taken.
Question 391
A firm should shut down its operations in the short run if the Selling Price cannot even cover:
View Explanation
In the short run, a firm can ignore fixed costs (sunk). But if revenue < variable cost, every unit sold increases the loss. Hence, the Shutdown Point is where Price = Average Variable Cost.
Question 392
Fixed Overhead Volume Variance arises due to the difference between:
View Explanation
Volume variance arises when actual production volume differs from budgeted volume. If actual production is higher, fixed costs are over-absorbed (Favorable).
Question 393
The quarterly TDS return to be filed by banks for interest payments (other than salary) is:
View Explanation
Form 26Q is for TDS on payments other than salary to residents. 24Q is for Salary. 27Q is for non-residents.
Question 394
What is the full form of HSN Code used in GST?
View Explanation
HSN is an internationally accepted product coding system used to maintain uniformity in classification of goods.
Question 395
The process of charging identifiable items of cost to cost centers or cost units is called:
View Explanation
Allocation is the direct assignment of cost to a unit (e.g., Salary of Dept A Manager to Dept A). Apportionment is distributing common costs.
Question 396
A "Flexible Budget" is designed to change with:
View Explanation
A Flexible Budget adjusts budgeted costs for different levels of activity, recognizing that variable costs change with volume while fixed costs remain constant.
Question 397
Income earned in the Financial Year 2023-24 is taxed in the Assessment Year:
View Explanation
The year in which income is earned is the Previous Year (FY 2023-24). The year in which it is assessed and taxed is the Assessment Year (AY 2024-25).
Question 398
Which of the following equations represents "Contribution"?
View Explanation
Contribution = Sales - Variable Cost. Alternatively, Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit (since Sales - VC - FC = Profit).
Question 399
An "E-Way Bill" is required for the movement of goods worth more than:
View Explanation
Under GST, movement of goods of value exceeding ?50,000 generally requires an E-Way Bill generated from the GST portal.
Question 400
In Contract Costing, "Retention Money" is:
View Explanation
Retention money ensures the contractor completes the work satisfactorily. It is released after the defect liability period.
Question 401
Form 15H is submitted to the bank by:
View Explanation
Form 15G is for individuals below 60 years, and Form 15H is exclusively for Senior Citizens (60 years and above).
Question 402
If Actual Price is ?12, Standard Price is ?10, and Actual Quantity is 1000 units, the Material Price Variance is:
View Explanation
Formula: (Standard Price - Actual Price) * Actual Quantity. (10 - 12) * 1000 = -2 * 1000 = -2000. Since actual price is higher, it is Adverse.
Question 403
An "Input Service Distributor" (ISD) under GST is an office that:
View Explanation
ISD (like Head Office) receives invoices for services used by branches and distributes the Input Tax Credit (ITC) to them proportionately.
Question 404
Performance Budgeting focuses primarily on:
View Explanation
Unlike traditional budgeting which focuses on inputs (expenditure items), Performance Budgeting links funding to expected outcomes and outputs (results).
Question 405
Deduction under Section 80E is available for:
View Explanation
Section 80E allows deduction of the entire interest amount paid on education loans for self, spouse, or children, for a maximum of 8 years.
Question 406
In a "Make or Buy" decision, which cost is relevant for comparison with the external purchase price?
View Explanation
Fixed costs will be incurred regardless of the decision (unless specific avoidable fixed costs exist). Therefore, the relevant cost to manufacture is only the Marginal/Variable cost.
Question 407
UTGST (Union Territory GST) is applicable in:
View Explanation
UTs with legislature (Delhi, J&K, Puducherry) have their own SGST Act. UTs without legislature (Andaman, Lakshadweep, etc.) are governed by the UTGST Act.
Question 408
Cost of "Lubricants" for factory machines is classified as:
View Explanation
Lubricants are consumables not part of the finished product but necessary for production. Hence, Indirect Material.
Question 409
Agricultural Income in India is:
View Explanation
Agricultural income is exempt from central income tax. However, it is included for rate purposes to determine the tax slab for other income (Partial Integration).
Question 410
Management by Exception (MBE) in budgetary control implies:
View Explanation
MBE saves management time by alerting them only when actual performance deviates significantly from the plan.
Question 411
The "Time of Supply" fixes the point when:
View Explanation
Time of Supply determines the due date for payment of tax. For goods, it is usually the earlier of invoice date or last date to issue invoice.
Question 412
A "Cost Center" is:
View Explanation
Cost centers help in allocating and controlling costs. Example: Maintenance Dept, Assembly Line, or a Sales Manager.
Question 413
Income Tax is charged on the income of the "Previous Year". The Previous Year is defined as:
View Explanation
In India, the Previous Year always runs from 1st April to 31st March immediately preceding the Assessment Year.
Question 414
In a Break-Even Chart, the "Angle of Incidence" indicates:
View Explanation
A wider Angle of Incidence means higher profitability (profit grows fast as sales increase). A narrow angle suggests low profitability.
Question 415
To claim Input Tax Credit (ITC), which of the following conditions is mandatory?
View Explanation
Section 16 of CGST Act lays down 4 conditions: 1. Possession of Invoice 2. Receipt of Goods 3. Tax paid to Govt 4. Return furnished.
Question 416
If Actual Sales are ?1,20,000 and Budgeted Sales are ?1,00,000, the Sales Value Variance is:
View Explanation
Sales Variance = Actual Sales - Budgeted Sales. Since actual revenue is higher than budgeted, it is Favorable.
Question 417
Which of the following is estimated as a cash INFLOW in a Cash Budget?
View Explanation
Credit sales do not bring immediate cash. Only when debtors pay (collection) does cash flow in. Depreciation and Bad Debts are non-cash items.
Question 418
Income from subletting a house property is taxable under the head:
View Explanation
Income from House Property is applicable only to the OWNER. A tenant subletting the house is not the owner, so the rent received is taxed under "Other Sources" or Business (if it's their business).
Question 419
Fixed Cost per unit:
View Explanation
Total Fixed Cost remains constant, but as production volume increases, the fixed cost is spread over more units, reducing the cost per unit.
Question 420
Which of the following is NOT a standard tax slab under GST in India?
View Explanation
The standard GST slabs are 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%. There is no 25% slab.
Question 421
Sales Volume Variance is favorable when:
View Explanation
Sales Volume Variance measures the impact of the difference between actual quantity sold and budgeted quantity. If a firm sells more units than planned (Actual Qty > Budgeted Qty), it generates more revenue/profit, resulting in a Favorable variance, regardless of the price difference (which is Price Variance).
Question 422
Under Section 54EC, capital gains arising from the transfer of long-term capital assets are exempt if invested in specified bonds (like NHAI/REC) within:
View Explanation
To claim exemption on Long Term Capital Gains, the assessee must invest the gains in specified bonds of NHAI, REC, etc., within a strict timeline of 6 months from the date of asset transfer. The maximum limit for investment in a financial year is ?50 Lakh.
Question 423
In the case of a "Composite Supply" (e.g., Mobile phone with charger), the GST rate applicable is:
View Explanation
Composite supply consists of two or more naturally bundled supplies where one is the Principal Supply. Section 8 of the CGST Act states that the tax liability shall be the rate applicable to the Principal Supply (e.g., Mobile Phone rate applies to the whole package).
Question 424
The "Cost Indifference Point" is the level of output where:
View Explanation
The Cost Indifference Point is the volume of production at which total costs under two different methods (e.g., Machine A vs Machine B) are identical. Below this point, the option with lower fixed cost is preferred; above it, the option with lower variable cost is preferred.
Question 425
Which of the following is a distinct feature of "Zero Based Budgeting" (ZBB)?
View Explanation
ZBB reverses the traditional incremental budgeting approach. Managers must justify all expenses for each new period, starting from a "zero base," forcing a review of cost-benefit for every activity to eliminate inefficiencies.
Question 426
Under Section 194C, what is the TDS rate for payments made to individual/HUF contractors if PAN is provided?
View Explanation
For payments to resident contractors: If the payee is an Individual or HUF, TDS is 1%. For others (like companies/firms), it is 2%. If PAN is not provided, the rate jumps to 20%.
Question 427
In the case of a "Mixed Supply" (e.g., a gift hamper of chocolates, juice, and toys sold for a single price), the tax liability is determined by:
View Explanation
Mixed supply refers to two or more individual supplies sold for a single price which are NOT naturally bundled. GST law mandates that such a supply be taxed at the rate of the item attracting the highest tax rate to prevent tax evasion.
Question 428
In a Cost Sheet, "Cost of Production" is arrived at by adjusting "Works Cost" (Factory Cost) for:
View Explanation
Factory Cost + Administrative Overheads related to production + Opening WIP - Closing WIP = Cost of Production. Selling expenses are added later to find Cost of Sales.
Question 429
Loss from a "Speculation Business" can be set off against:
View Explanation
Under Section 73, losses from a speculation business are treated distinctly. They cannot be set off against normal business profits or other heads. They can only be set off against speculation profits and carried forward for 4 years.
Question 430
In Activity Based Costing (ABC), a "Cost Driver" is defined as:
View Explanation
ABC assigns overheads based on activities. A Cost Driver (e.g., number of machine setups, number of inspections) is the factor that influences the volume/cost of that activity, providing more accurate costing than traditional volume-based absorption.
Question 431
If a registered person fails to pay the supplier within 180 days from the date of invoice, what happens to the Input Tax Credit (ITC) availed?
View Explanation
To prevent recipients from enjoying tax credit without paying suppliers, GST law mandates reversal of ITC if payment is not made within 180 days. The credit can be re-availed once payment is made.
Question 432
Which of the following will INCREASE the Profit Volume (P/V) Ratio?
View Explanation
P/V Ratio = (Sales - Variable Cost) / Sales. Reducing the Variable Cost increases the Contribution margin, thereby increasing the P/V Ratio. Fixed costs do not affect P/V ratio.
Question 433
The maximum deduction available under Section 80D for health insurance premium paid for Senior Citizen parents is:
View Explanation
The general limit is ?25,000. However, for senior citizens (age 60 or above), the limit is enhanced to ?50,000. This is separate from the self/family limit.
Question 434
If workers are paid at a higher rate than the standard rate, the Labor Rate Variance will be:
View Explanation
Paying more than the planned (standard) rate increases costs, which reduces profit. Hence, it is an Adverse variance. Formula: (Standard Rate - Actual Rate) * Actual Hours.
Question 435
In a Cash Budget, if the closing cash balance is negative (deficit), the management should plan for:
View Explanation
A projected cash deficit indicates that outflows exceed inflows. Management must arrange temporary financing like an overdraft or short-term loan to maintain liquidity.
Question 436
For banking services provided to an account holder, the "Place of Supply" under GST is:
View Explanation
As per IGST Act, for services to a registered person or account holder, the place of supply is the location of the recipient. If the recipient is not an account holder and location is unknown, it is the bank's location.
Question 437
A "Sunk Cost" is defined as:
View Explanation
Sunk costs (e.g., R&D spent on a failed product) are irrelevant for future decision-making because they cannot be changed regardless of the action taken.
Question 438
A "Best Judgment Assessment" under Section 144 is carried out by the Assessing Officer when:
View Explanation
If the taxpayer is non-compliant (doesn't file return, doesn't produce documents), the officer estimates the income to the best of their judgment and determines the tax liability.
Question 439
To calculate the Sales volume required to achieve a "Target Profit", the formula is:
View Explanation
Contribution must cover both Fixed Cost and the desired Target Profit. Dividing the total required Contribution (FC + Profit) by the PV ratio gives the required Sales volume.
Question 440
If goods purchased for business are used for personal consumption by the proprietor, the Input Tax Credit (ITC) availed on them:
View Explanation
ITC is available only for goods/services used for business furtherance. Personal consumption is a non-business use, so the proportionate credit must be reversed.
Question 441
The primary difference between Job Costing and Process Costing is:
View Explanation
Job Costing tracks each unique job separately (heterogeneous). Process Costing averages costs over a large number of identical units produced in a continuous flow (homogeneous).
Question 442
Under Section 194N, TDS is deducted on cash withdrawals from a bank account if the aggregate amount exceeds _____ in a year (for a person who has filed returns).
View Explanation
For compliant taxpayers (who filed returns), TDS @ 2% applies on cash withdrawals exceeding ?1 Crore. For non-filers, the threshold is lower (?20 Lakh).
Question 443
Which budget is usually prepared FIRST and serves as the basis for other budgets?
View Explanation
The Sales Budget estimates the revenue and demand. Since production, purchasing, and cash needs depend on how much the company expects to sell, the Sales Budget is the starting point (Key Factor).
Question 444
Fixed Overhead Cost Variance is the difference between:
View Explanation
This variance measures the over or under-absorption of fixed overheads based on the actual output achieved versus what was actually spent.
Question 445
Supply of goods where the location of the supplier and the place of supply are in two different states is called:
View Explanation
Cross-border transactions between states are Inter-State supplies and attract IGST.
Question 446
The sum of the P/V Ratio and the Variable Cost Ratio is always equal to:
View Explanation
Sales = Variable Cost + Contribution. Dividing by Sales: 1 = (VC/Sales) + (Contribution/Sales). Thus, VC Ratio + P/V Ratio = 1.
Question 447
Deduction under Section 80TTA regarding interest on savings accounts is available up to:
View Explanation
For individuals (other than senior citizens) and HUF, interest on savings accounts (bank/post office) up to ?10,000 is deductible. (For Senior Citizens, Sec 80TTB gives ?50,000 limit including FD interest).
Question 448
A "Cost Unit" for the Transport industry is typically:
View Explanation
Cost unit is a unit of product or service in relation to which costs are ascertained. For transport, it combines quantity (passenger/ton) and distance (km).
Question 449
The "Taxable Event" under GST is:
View Explanation
GST replaced multiple taxable events (like manufacture, sale, provision of service) with a single event: "Supply".
Question 450
A "Rolling Budget" is one that:
View Explanation
This ensures that a budget for a full year is always available, keeping the plan current and responsive to changes.
Question 451
Labor Idle Time Variance is always:
View Explanation
Idle time represents hours paid for but not worked (due to power failure, machine breakdown, etc.). Since this is a cost without production, it always results in an Adverse variance.
Question 452
Under GST, if a principal sends goods to a job worker, the goods must be returned within _____ to avoid being treated as a "Supply".
View Explanation
If inputs/capital goods are not returned within 1 year/3 years respectively, it is deemed that the principal has supplied them to the job worker on the day they were sent out, and tax becomes payable with interest.
Question 453
Tax Collection at Source (TCS) under Section 206C(1G) applies to remittances under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS) if the amount exceeds _____ in a financial year.
View Explanation
For LRS remittances (other than for education via loan), TCS @ 20% (revised rate) applies on amounts exceeding ?7 Lakh in a financial year.
Question 454
If the Fixed Cost increases while Variable Cost per unit and Selling Price remain constant, the Break-Even Point will:
View Explanation
BEP = Fixed Cost / Contribution per unit. Since the numerator (Fixed Cost) increases and the denominator (Contribution) stays same, the BEP increases (you need to sell more to cover higher fixed costs).
Question 455
In preparing a Cash Budget, if "Wages are paid with a time lag of 1/4 month", it means in the month of April, the wages paid will be:
View Explanation
1/4 lag means 1 week's wages are paid next month. So, in April, you pay for the remaining 3 weeks (3/4 or 75%) of April and the pending 1 week (1/4 or 25%) of March.
Question 456
In Process Costing, "Equivalent Production" is calculated to:
View Explanation
Since opening and closing WIP are only partially complete, they cannot be simply added to completed units. They are converted into "Equivalent Units" based on the percentage of completion.
Question 457
The "Anti-Profiteering" measure in GST ensures that:
View Explanation
Section 171 mandates that any reduction in tax rate or benefit of ITC must be passed on to the consumer. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) now oversees this.
Question 458
What is the due date for filing Income Tax Return for a working partner of a firm whose accounts are required to be audited?
View Explanation
If a firm is subject to audit, the due date for the firm AND its working partners is 31st October of the Assessment Year.
Question 459
In Inventory Control, "ABC Analysis" classifies items based on:
View Explanation
"A" items are high value (70% value, 10% quantity), "B" are moderate, and "C" are low value (10% value, 70% quantity). It helps focus control efforts on high-value items.
Question 460
Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance is calculated as:
View Explanation
This variance arises because the actual hours taken to produce the output differ from the standard hours allowed, affecting the absorption of variable overheads.
Question 461
For taxpayers with aggregate turnover of more than ?5 Crore, mentioning how many digits of HSN Code on B2B tax invoices is mandatory?
View Explanation
Taxpayers with turnover > ?5 Cr must declare 6 digits of HSN code. For turnover up to ?5 Cr, 4 digits are required for B2B.
Question 462
If Sales are ?1,00,000, Profit is ?10,000, and Fixed Cost is ?30,000, what is the P/V Ratio?
View Explanation
Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit = 30,000 + 10,000 = 40,000. P/V Ratio = (Contribution / Sales) * 100 = (40,000 / 1,00,000) * 100 = 40%.
Question 463
The standard deduction available for Salaried Employees under Section 16(ia) is:
View Explanation
The standard deduction for salaried individuals is ?50,000 (or the amount of salary, whichever is less) under both Old and New Tax Regimes.
Question 464
"Operating Costing" is also known as:
View Explanation
Operating Costing is the method used to ascertain the cost of providing a service (e.g., Transport, Hospital, Hotel, Power generation).
Question 465
A "Functional Budget" relates to:
View Explanation
Budgets prepared for individual functions/departments of the organization (e.g., Sales Budget, Production Budget) are Functional Budgets. They are consolidated into the Master Budget.
Question 466
If a person holds more than one PAN card:
View Explanation
Holding more than one PAN is illegal. The Income Tax Act imposes a penalty of ?10,000 for possessing multiple PANs.
Question 467
A "Casual Taxable Person" (e.g., a trader setting up a stall in an exhibition in another state) must obtain GST registration:
View Explanation
Casual Taxable Persons do not have the benefit of the turnover threshold. They must compulsorily register 5 days before starting business and pay advance tax.
Question 468
If Margin of Safety is 20% and P/V Ratio is 40%, the Profit percentage on Sales is:
View Explanation
Profit % = Margin of Safety % * P/V Ratio. 20% * 40% = 0.20 * 0.40 = 0.08 or 8%.
Question 469
Calculate Prime Cost: Direct Material = ?10,000, Direct Labor = ?5,000, Factory Rent = ?2,000, Direct Expenses = ?1,000.
View Explanation
Prime Cost = DM + DL + Direct Expenses = 10,000 + 5,000 + 1,000 = 16,000. Factory Rent is an overhead, not part of Prime Cost.
Question 470
Material Mix Variance is relevant when:
View Explanation
Mix variance calculates the cost impact of changing the ratio/proportion of different materials used (e.g., using more cheap material A and less expensive material B).
Question 471
Compensation received for the termination of an agency business is treated as:
View Explanation
As per Section 28(ii), compensation for termination or modification of terms of agency is taxable as "Profits and Gains of Business or Profession".
Question 472
Which of the following services is EXEMPT from GST?
View Explanation
Renting a residential house for residential purposes is exempt. However, renting it for commercial purposes is taxable.
Question 473
"Capacity Ratio" in budgetary control is calculated as:
View Explanation
Capacity Ratio measures whether the available capacity was utilized fully. >100% means overtime was worked; <100% means underutilization.
Question 474
An "Escalation Clause" in a contract is designed to cover the risk of:
View Explanation
This clause allows the contract price to be increased if input costs rise beyond a certain limit, protecting the contractor from inflation.
Question 475
Allowances paid to High Court Judges are:
View Explanation
Under Article 222(2) of the Constitution and Income Tax Act, allowances paid to Judges of High Court and Supreme Court are fully exempt from tax.
Question 476
A business is making a loss. To reach the Break-Even Point, it must:
View Explanation
To stop loss (reach BEP), revenue must cover total costs. This can be done by increasing sales volume/price or reducing costs (Fixed or Variable).
Question 477
For supply of services, the Tax Invoice must be issued within:
View Explanation
The general rule is 30 days. For banking and financial institutions (NBFCs), the time limit is extended to 45 days.
Question 478
An "Ideal Standard" assumes:
View Explanation
Ideal standards represent the best possible performance under perfect conditions. They are rarely achievable and are used more for motivation than actual control.
Question 479
For individuals, the highest rate of Surcharge (under the new regime for income > ?5 Crore) has been capped at:
View Explanation
In Budget 2023, the highest surcharge rate was reduced from 37% to 25% under the New Tax Regime to provide relief to high income earners.
Question 480
Which of the following costs is "Semi-Variable"?
View Explanation
Semi-variable costs have a fixed component (e.g., fixed line rental) and a variable component (e.g., charge per call/unit). Rent is Fixed. Material is Variable.