Question 1
According to the "Efficient Market Hypothesis" (EMH), which of the following statements is TRUE?
View Explanation
The Efficient Market Hypothesis asserts that financial markets are "informationally efficient". Since prices already reflect all known information, no investor can have an edge, and "beating the market" consistently is impossible except through luck.
Question 2
Borrowing under the "Notice Money Market" refers to funds borrowed for a period of:
View Explanation
The Call/Notice/Term Money market is classified by tenor: "Call Money" is for 1 day, "Notice Money" is for 2-14 days, and "Term Money" is for 15 days up to 1 year.
Question 3
In the context of Primary Market issues (IPOs), what does the "ASBA" mechanism ensure?
View Explanation
Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) ensures that funds are debited from the investor's account only when shares are actually allotted, allowing them to earn interest on the blocked amount in the interim.
Question 4
In India, if the exchange rate is quoted as "USD 1 = INR 82.50", this is an example of a:
View Explanation
A Direct Quote expresses the price of one unit of foreign currency in terms of domestic currency (e.g., how many Rupees for 1 Dollar). India follows the Direct Quote system. An Indirect Quote would be INR 1 = USD 0.012.
Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a function typically performed by a Merchant Banker?
View Explanation
Merchant Bankers are capital market intermediaries regulated by SEBI. Unlike commercial banks, they are not allowed to carry out core banking functions like accepting demand deposits from the general public.
Question 6
Which of the following is a key difference between a "Forward Contract" and a "Futures Contract"?
View Explanation
Futures are standardized contracts traded on exchanges with a central counterparty (clearinghouse), virtually eliminating counterparty risk. Forwards are customized, Over-the-Counter (OTC) contracts between two parties, carrying higher counterparty risk.
Question 7
In a Factoring arrangement, the "Factor" provides prepayment to the client up to what percentage of the invoice value (typically)?
View Explanation
Ideally, the Factor advances about 80-90% of the invoice value immediately to the client. The balance (minus charges) is paid when the customer (debtor) makes the full payment.
Question 8
"Mezzanine Financing" in the context of Venture Capital refers to:
View Explanation
Mezzanine Financing is a late-stage financing round, typically used by companies that are already generating revenue and looking to scale up significantly before going public (IPO). It often combines debt and equity features.
Question 9
Which of the following is a characteristic of a "Financial Lease"?
View Explanation
A Financial Lease is a non-cancellable contractual commitment where the lessee uses the asset for most of its economic life, bearing all risks and rewards, effectively acting like the owner.
Question 10
Which of the following is NOT a SEBI-registered Credit Rating Agency (CRA) in India?
View Explanation
CIBIL (TransUnion CIBIL) is a Credit Information Company (CIC) that maintains credit records of individuals/companies, not a Credit Rating Agency (CRA) that rates debt instruments. CRAs evaluate the creditworthiness of issuers of debt securities.
Question 11
A Mutual Fund scheme that invests in a mix of equity and debt instruments to balance risk and return is called a:
View Explanation
Hybrid Funds invest in more than one asset class (usually Equity and Debt) to achieve a balance between growth (from equity) and income/stability (from debt).
Question 12
The principle of "Uberrimae Fidei" in insurance contracts means:
View Explanation
Insurance contracts require "Utmost Good Faith," meaning both the insurer and the insured must disclose all material facts relevant to the risk. Hiding information can lead to the policy being voided.
Question 13
Which asset class in the National Pension System (NPS) corresponds to "Government Securities"?
View Explanation
In NPS, Asset Class E is Equity, Class C is Corporate Bonds, Class G is Government Securities, and Class A is Alternative Investment Funds.
Question 14
Which of the following is considered a "Para Banking" activity?
View Explanation
Para Banking activities are financial services undertaken by banks that are ancillary to their core banking business, such as Mutual Fund distribution, Insurance (Bancassurance), and Portfolio Management Services.
Question 15
Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) are regulated in India by:
View Explanation
REITs are investment vehicles that pool funds to invest in real estate. They function like mutual funds and are regulated by SEBI under the REIT Regulations, 2014.
Question 16
What is the maturity range for Commercial Papers (CPs) in India?
View Explanation
Commercial Papers can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to one year from the date of issue.
Question 17
The "Green Shoe Option" allows a stabilizing agent to over-allot shares up to what percentage of the issue size?
View Explanation
SEBI guidelines allow the Green Shoe Option (price stabilization mechanism) to be exercised for up to 15% of the total issue size.
Question 18
The theory that states spot exchange rates change to equalize the purchasing power of currencies in their respective countries is called:
View Explanation
PPP theory asserts that exchange rates between currencies are in equilibrium when their purchasing power is the same in each of the two countries. It is based on the "Law of One Price".
Question 19
In "International Factoring", the two-factor system involves:
View Explanation
International factoring typically involves two factors: the Export Factor (in the exporter's country) who handles the client, and the Import Factor (in the importer's country) who handles credit assessment and collection from the buyer.
Question 20
The main difference between Venture Capital (VC) and Private Equity (PE) is:
View Explanation
Venture Capital focuses on high-risk, early-stage companies with growth potential. Private Equity typically invests larger amounts in mature companies to restructure or expand them.
Question 21
In a lease, if the asset becomes obsolete due to technological changes before the end of the lease term, this risk is known as:
View Explanation
Obsolescence risk is the risk that the asset loses value faster than expected due to new technology or market changes. In an Operating Lease, this risk remains with the Lessor; in a Finance Lease, it is transferred to the Lessee.
Question 22
Instruments with a credit rating of "BBB" (Triple B) and above are generally considered:
View Explanation
Ratings of BBB- (or equivalent) and above signify adequate safety regarding timely payment and are termed "Investment Grade." Ratings below this (BB and lower) are "Speculative" or "Junk" grade.
Question 23
What is the main benefit of "Rupee Cost Averaging" in a Systematic Investment Plan (SIP)?
View Explanation
Rupee Cost Averaging automatically adjusts the number of units purchased based on the NAV. When markets fall (NAV down), the fixed SIP amount buys more units, reducing the overall average cost of acquisition over time.
Question 24
Which type of life insurance policy provides coverage for a specific period and pays out ONLY if the policyholder dies during that term (no maturity benefit)?
View Explanation
Term Insurance is a pure protection plan. It offers a high sum assured at a low premium because there is no savings or investment component, and no payout if the insured survives the term.
Question 25
Contributions to NPS are eligible for an additional tax deduction (over and above the ?1.5 Lakh 80C limit) under which section of the Income Tax Act?
View Explanation
Section 80CCD(1B) provides an exclusive additional deduction of up to ?50,000 for contributions to the NPS Tier I account, over and above the ?1.5 Lakh limit under Section 80C.
Question 26
A "Repo" (Repurchase Agreement) is essentially a:
View Explanation
In a Repo, the borrower sells securities to the lender with an agreement to repurchase them at a future date at a predetermined price. The securities act as collateral for the short-term loan.
Question 27
A "Rights Issue" is an offer of shares to:
View Explanation
A Rights Issue gives existing shareholders the "right" (but not obligation) to buy new shares in proportion to their existing holdings, usually at a discount to the market price.
Question 28
Currency Futures in India are traded on:
View Explanation
Currency Futures are standardized contracts traded on exchanges (NSE, BSE, MSEI). In contrast, Currency Forwards are traded OTC between banks and clients.
Question 29
Besides financing, what other key service does a Factor provide?
View Explanation
Factors provide a comprehensive package including maintenance of the sales ledger, collection of dues from debtors, credit protection, and advisory services.
Question 30
Only a "Category I" Merchant Banker registered with SEBI can act as a:
View Explanation
SEBI regulations classify Merchant Bankers into categories. Only Category I Merchant Bankers are authorized to act as Lead Managers for public issues (IPOs/FPOs). Other categories have restricted roles.
Question 31
In an "Interest Rate Swap" (IRS), the principal amount is:
View Explanation
In an Interest Rate Swap (IRS), the principal is "Notional". It is never exchanged. Only the interest payment streams (e.g., fixed vs. floating) based on this notional principal are exchanged between the counterparties.
Question 32
Regarding the TReDS platform, which of the following statements is FALSE?
View Explanation
Financing on TReDS is "Without Recourse" to the MSME seller. Once the invoice is accepted by the buyer and financed, the financier takes the credit risk of the buyer. The MSME seller does not have to refund the money if the buyer defaults.
Question 33
A "Liquid Fund" must invest in debt and money market securities with a maturity of up to:
View Explanation
According to SEBI guidelines, Liquid Funds are debt funds that invest in instruments having a maturity of up to 91 days only. This minimizes interest rate risk.
Question 34
The "Principle of Indemnity" ensures that the insured is compensated only to the extent of the loss. This principle does NOT apply to:
View Explanation
Life Insurance is not a contract of indemnity because human life cannot be valued in monetary terms. The sum assured is paid regardless of the actual financial "loss" caused by death.
Question 35
In the NPS "Auto Choice" investment option, the "Aggressive Life Cycle Fund" (LC-75) allows a maximum equity exposure of:
View Explanation
Under Auto Choice (LC-75), the equity exposure starts at 75% until age 35 and then gradually reduces every year as the subscriber ages, shifting towards safer debt assets.
Question 36
What is the minimum denomination for issuing a Certificate of Deposit (CD)?
View Explanation
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) can be issued in multiples of ?1 Lakh, subject to a minimum size of ?1 Lakh.
Question 37
Since January 2016, SEBI has made the ASBA (Application Supported by Blocked Amount) facility mandatory for:
View Explanation
SEBI mandated that all categories of investors (Retail, HNI, QIB) must strictly apply through the ASBA mechanism to improve efficiency and reduce refunds.
Question 38
The "Foreign Exchange Dealers Association of India" (FEDAI) primarily:
View Explanation
FEDAI is an association of banks dealing in forex. It frames rules for the conduct of inter-bank forex business and issues guidelines to Authorized Dealers, under RBI's overall supervision.
Question 39
Regarding "IPO Grading" in India, which statement is correct?
View Explanation
SEBI made IPO Grading optional in 2014. Grading (on a scale of 1 to 5) reflects the assessment of the company's fundamentals, not the issue price or potential returns.
Question 40
In a Hire Purchase agreement, when does the "Legal Ownership" (Title) of the asset pass to the hirer?
View Explanation
In Hire Purchase, the hirer is a bailee of the goods until the final installment is paid. The option to purchase is exercised only at the very end.
Question 41
"Sweat Equity" shares are issued by a company to its directors or employees for:
View Explanation
Sweat Equity acknowledges the non-monetary contribution (hard work, skills, IP) of founders and key employees. It is issued at a discount or for consideration other than cash.
Question 42
The practice where an issuer solicits ratings from multiple agencies but publishes only the most favorable one is known as:
View Explanation
Rating Shopping misleads investors about the true risk. SEBI has introduced strict disclosure norms to curb this, requiring issuers to disclose all ratings obtained, even those not accepted.
Question 43
Commercial banks in India can undertake the business of "Primary Dealership" (PD) in Government Securities:
View Explanation
RBI permits eligible commercial banks to undertake Primary Dealership business departmentally (without forming a separate subsidiary), provided they meet specific prudential criteria.
Question 44
As per SEBI regulations for REITs, the "Sponsor(s)" must collectively hold a minimum of what percentage of units for a specified period post-listing?
View Explanation
This is the "Skin in the Game" requirement. Sponsors must hold at least 25% of the units for 3 years from the date of listing to ensure their continued commitment to the REIT.
Question 45
Other factors remaining constant, an increase in the "Volatility" of the underlying asset price will generally cause the price (premium) of an Option to:
View Explanation
Higher volatility increases the probability that the option will end up "In the Money" (profitable). Therefore, sellers demand a higher premium for taking on this higher risk. This applies to both Call and Put options.
Question 46
In the Indian Money Market, the standard day count convention used for calculating interest on Treasury Bills is:
View Explanation
For T-Bills and G-Secs in India, the convention is Actual/365. This means interest/discount is calculated based on the actual number of days elapsed divided by a 365-day year.
Question 47
"Qualified Institutional Placement" (QIP) is a mechanism available only to:
View Explanation
QIP allows listed companies to raise capital quickly from institutional investors without the lengthy regulatory process of a standard public issue.
Question 48
A "Nostro Account" implies:
View Explanation
Nostro (Latin for "Ours") refers to a bank's account held in a foreign bank in that foreign country's currency (e.g., SBI holding a USD account with Citibank NY).
Question 49
Which organization sets the "General Rules for International Factoring" (GRIF)?
View Explanation
FCI is the global representative body for factoring and receivables finance. GRIF provides a legal framework for international factoring transactions.
Question 50
In "Treaty Reinsurance":
View Explanation
Unlike Facultative Reinsurance (case-by-case), Treaty Reinsurance is an automatic agreement covering a block of business.
Question 51
For purchasing Liquid Fund units, if the application and funds are received by 1:30 PM, what NAV is applicable?
View Explanation
Liquid funds are unique. For purchases up to cut-off time (usually 1:30 PM), the applicable NAV is of the day *immediately preceding* the day of application (Historical NAV), provided funds are realized.
Question 52
In the NPS architecture, a "Point of Presence" (PoP) acts as:
View Explanation
PoPs are the first point of contact for NPS subscribers. Banks and financial institutions registered as PoPs facilitate account opening and upload contributions.
Question 53
A "Sale and Leaseback" arrangement is primarily used by companies to:
View Explanation
In this arrangement, the owner sells an asset to a lessor and immediately leases it back. This frees up cash (capital) from the asset for working capital needs, without losing possession.
Question 54
Under Basel III capital regulations in India, if a borrower has two different ratings from two different credit rating agencies, which rating is applied for risk weighting?
View Explanation
Prudential norms dictate conservatism. If there are two ratings, the lower rating (indicating higher risk) must be used to calculate capital requirements.
Question 55
As per SEBI regulations, the minimum investment required from a client to open a "Portfolio Management Services" (PMS) account is:
View Explanation
SEBI raised the minimum ticket size for PMS from ?25 Lakh to ?50 Lakh in 2020 to ensure that only high-net-worth individuals with risk-taking capacity enter this segment.
Question 56
A publicly offered REIT is required to disclose its Net Asset Value (NAV) at least:
View Explanation
Since real estate valuations do not change daily, SEBI mandates REITs to declare NAV semi-annually based on a full valuation of assets.
Question 57
A "Credit Default Swap" (CDS) acts primarily as:
View Explanation
In a CDS, the buyer pays a premium to the seller. In return, the seller agrees to compensate the buyer if the underlying debt issuer defaults. It transfers credit risk.
Question 58
An "Anchor Investor" in an IPO is a Qualified Institutional Buyer (QIB) who:
View Explanation
Anchor Investors are allocated shares one day before the IPO opens to boost confidence. They have a lock-in period (partially 30 days, partially 90 days).
Question 59
TREPS (Tri-party Repo) replaced which earlier money market instrument?
View Explanation
TREPS replaced CBLO in 2018 to provide a more robust tri-party repo platform managed by CCIL.
Question 60
What is the mandatory lock-in period for a Unit Linked Insurance Plan (ULIP)?
View Explanation
Current regulations mandate a 5-year lock-in period for ULIPs, during which the policyholder cannot withdraw funds without surrendering the policy (with charges).
Question 61
An "Indian Depository Receipt" (IDR) is an instrument denominated in which currency?
View Explanation
An IDR is an instrument in the form of a depository receipt created by a Domestic Depository (custodian of securities registered with SEBI) against the underlying equity of issuing company to enable foreign companies to raise funds from the Indian securities market. It is denominated in Indian Rupees.
Question 62
If the exchange rate of USD/INR is 82.00 and GBP/USD is 1.25, what is the implied "Cross Rate" for GBP/INR?
View Explanation
To find GBP/INR, we multiply GBP/USD by USD/INR. (1.25 * 82.00 = 102.50). This calculation is used when a direct quote between two currencies is not available or to check for arbitrage opportunities.
Question 63
A "Forward Rate Agreement" (FRA) is primarily used to hedge against:
View Explanation
An FRA is a forward contract on interest rates. It allows a borrower or lender to lock in an interest rate for a future period, thereby protecting themselves against adverse movements in interest rates.
Question 64
In "Reverse Factoring" (also known as Supply Chain Finance), the arrangement is initiated by the:
View Explanation
Unlike traditional factoring where the supplier initiates the process to get funds, Reverse Factoring is buyer-led. A large buyer arranges a financing program with a bank/factor to pay its suppliers early (at a discount), improving the supply chain stability.
Question 65
What does the acronym "PIPE" stand for in the context of Private Equity deals?
View Explanation
PIPE involves the selling of publicly traded common shares or some form of preferred stock or convertible security to private investors (usually institutional investors) at a discount to the market price.
Question 66
For a "Financial Lease", how is the asset treated in the books of the Lessee (User)?
View Explanation
Since a Financial Lease transfers substantially all risks and rewards to the lessee, accounting standards require the lessee to capitalize the asset (show it on the Balance Sheet) and claim depreciation, even though legal title is with the lessor.
Question 67
A "Negative Outlook" assigned by a Credit Rating Agency implies:
View Explanation
A Rating Outlook assesses the potential direction of a long-term credit rating over the intermediate term (usually 6 months to 2 years). A "Negative" outlook means the rating may be lowered.
Question 68
Which type of Debt Mutual Fund carries the highest "Interest Rate Risk"?
View Explanation
Interest rate risk is directly proportional to the duration (maturity) of the bonds held. Long-duration funds like Gilt Funds (10-year) are highly sensitive to interest rate changes compared to short-duration funds.
Question 69
In Motor Insurance, "Third Party Liability" cover is:
View Explanation
Under the Motor Vehicles Act, Third Party Liability insurance is mandatory for all vehicles plying on public roads. It covers liability for death/injury to a third party or damage to third-party property.
Question 70
At the age of 60, what is the maximum percentage of the accumulated NPS corpus that a subscriber can withdraw as a tax-free lump sum?
View Explanation
At retirement (age 60), a subscriber can withdraw up to 60% of the corpus as a tax-free lump sum. The remaining 40% must be used to purchase an annuity.
Question 71
Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are instruments used by:
View Explanation
P-Notes are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who wish to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly.
Question 72
The process of "Reverse Book Building" is primarily used for:
View Explanation
Reverse Book Building is the mechanism used for price discovery when a company decides to delist its shares from the stock exchanges and buy back shares from the public.
Question 73
Which type of account allows an NRI to deposit income earned in India (like rent, dividends) and has restricted repatriability?
View Explanation
The Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) account is for managing income earned in India. Interest earned is taxable, and repatriation is limited (currently USD 1 million per financial year). NRE accounts are for foreign earnings and are fully repatriable.
Question 74
The "ISIN" (International Securities Identification Number) code is a unique identifier for:
View Explanation
ISIN is a 12-digit alphanumeric code that uniquely identifies a specific security (like equity share, debenture, etc.) admitted in the depository system.
Question 75
In Options trading, the "Delta" measures:
View Explanation
Delta represents the rate of change of the option premium with respect to the change in the price of the underlying asset.
Question 76
The key difference between "Recourse Factoring" and "Non-Recourse Factoring" lies in:
View Explanation
In Recourse Factoring, the client (seller) bears the risk of bad debts. In Non-Recourse Factoring, the Factor bears the risk if the customer fails to pay due to insolvency.
Question 77
In a typical Lease agreement, the legal ownership of the asset remains with:
View Explanation
Throughout the lease term, the Lessor (the entity leasing out the asset) retains the legal title/ownership. The Lessee only gets the right to use the asset.
Question 78
The benefit of "Indexation" available on Long Term Capital Gains (LTCG) from Debt Mutual Funds allows investors to:
View Explanation
(Note: Recent Finance Act changes may have altered this for new investments, but historically/conceptually Indexation adjusts the buying price using the Cost Inflation Index (CII), lowering the tax burden.)
Question 79
White Label ATMs (WLAs) are owned and operated by:
View Explanation
WLAs are set up, owned, and operated by non-bank entities incorporated under the Companies Act, authorized by RBI. They do not display any bank's branding.
Question 80
Dividends distributed by a REIT to its unit holders are generally exempt from tax in the hands of the unit holder, PROVIDED:
View Explanation
If the REIT SPV has not opted for the lower tax regime (Section 115BAA), the dividend income is tax-free for unit holders. If SPV opts for lower tax, dividends are taxable for investors.
Question 81
In a Repo transaction, the securities sold by the borrower are:
View Explanation
Although legal title passes, the economic substance is a collateralized loan. Thus, the borrower continues to recognize the securities in their Balance Sheet and recognizes a liability for the repurchase price.
Question 82
Which regulation governs the obligations of listed companies regarding disclosure and transparency?
View Explanation
SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (LODR) sets out the compliance norms for listed entities to ensure transparency and protect investor interests.
Question 83
Under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS), what is the maximum amount a resident individual can remit overseas per financial year?
View Explanation
Resident individuals can remit up to USD 250,000 per financial year for permissible current or capital account transactions under LRS.
Question 84
The "Due Diligence Certificate" submitted to SEBI before a public issue implies that:
View Explanation
It serves as a declaration by the Lead Manager that they have exercised reasonable care in verifying the disclosures made in the offer document.
Question 85
Which of the following is NOT a licensed TReDS platform operator in India?
View Explanation
BillDesk is a payment gateway. The three RBI-licensed TReDS platforms are RXIL, Invoicemart, and M1xchange.
Question 86
The term "Angel Tax" refers to income tax payable on:
View Explanation
Under Section 56(2)(viib), if a startup raises capital at a valuation higher than its Fair Market Value, the excess amount is treated as income and taxed. (Note: Recent budgets have eased this for DPIIT registered startups).
Question 87
Which factor is least likely to influence a country's "Sovereign Credit Rating"?
View Explanation
Sovereign ratings assess the government's ability to repay debt. Macro-economic indicators (Debt, Forex, Stability) matter, not the stock performance of individual private firms.
Question 88
The PFRDA Act, 2013 mandates that the foreign investment limit in the pension sector shall be linked to the limit in which other sector?
View Explanation
The Act specifies that the FDI limit in the pension sector shall be the same as the limit in the insurance sector (currently 74%).
Question 89
In the "Referral Model" of Bancassurance, the bank:
View Explanation
In the Referral Model, the bank only refers clients (leads) to the insurance company and provides physical infrastructure/data, receiving a referral fee. The actual selling is done by the insurer's staff.
Question 90
What is the effect of the "T+1" settlement cycle in the Indian equity market?
View Explanation
T+1 means settlement occurs on the next working day following the trade day, releasing capital faster and reducing counterparty risk compared to T+2.
Question 91
According to SEBI regulations, a Credit Rating Agency (CRA) must disclose its "Rating Philosophy" to ensure:
View Explanation
SEBI mandates CRAs to disclose their rating criteria, methodology, and philosophy to the public to maintain transparency and help investors understand how the creditworthiness was assessed.
Question 92
The "General Rules for International Factoring" (GRIF) are issued by:
View Explanation
FCI is the global representative body for factoring. GRIF provides a uniform legal framework for international factoring transactions between export and import factors.
Question 93
Who claims the "Depreciation" benefit for tax purposes in an Operating Lease?
View Explanation
In an Operating Lease, the risks and rewards of ownership remain with the Lessor. Therefore, the Lessor retains the asset on their books and claims depreciation as a tax deduction. The Lessee claims the lease rental as an expense.
Question 94
Venture Capital Funds (VCFs) in India are regulated under which SEBI regulation?
View Explanation
VCFs are now classified as Category I Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) under the SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012. The older VCF regulations were repealed.
Question 95
In a ULIP, the "Mortality Charge" is deducted to cover:
View Explanation
Mortality charge is the cost of insurance protection. It is deducted from the fund value by cancelling units and depends on the sum assured and the age of the policyholder.
Question 96
Which of the following is a key feature of the NPS Tier II account?
View Explanation
Tier II is an add-on voluntary savings account. Unlike Tier I, it offers liquidity as subscribers can withdraw money anytime. However, it generally does not offer tax benefits (except for a specific scheme for govt employees with a 3-year lock-in).
Question 97
SEBI has capped the Total Expense Ratio (TER) for equity-oriented mutual fund schemes. As the Assets Under Management (AUM) of the scheme increases, the permissible TER:
View Explanation
SEBI follows a slab-based structure where the maximum TER % decreases as the AUM slab increases, ensuring that the benefits of economies of scale are passed on to investors.
Question 98
The rate at which a bank buys foreign currency from a customer (exporter/individual) is known as the:
View Explanation
When a customer wants to convert foreign currency into rupees, the bank "buys" the FCY. The rate applied is the TT Buying Rate or Bill Buying Rate, which is lower than the selling rate.
Question 99
Primary Dealers (PDs) are required to meet underwriting commitments in the auctions of:
View Explanation
PDs have a mandatory obligation to underwrite the issuances of Government Securities to ensure that the government's borrowing program is successful.
Question 100
A REIT must invest at least what percentage of its asset value in completed and rent-generating properties?
View Explanation
SEBI regulations mandate that at least 80% of the value of the REIT assets must be invested in completed and revenue-generating properties to minimize development risk for investors.
Question 101
The "Put-Call Parity" relationship applies to:
View Explanation
Put-Call Parity defines the relationship between the price of a European Call option and a European Put option with the same strike price and expiration. It does not strictly hold for American options due to early exercise possibilities.
Question 102
In Domestic Factoring, typically how many factors are involved?
View Explanation
Domestic factoring usually involves a Single Factor who manages the receivables of the seller and collects from the buyer within the same country.
Question 103
Venture Capital Funds in India are essentially closed-ended funds. What is the minimum tenure (life) of a VCF scheme as per SEBI norms?
View Explanation
SEBI AIF Regulations stipulate that Category I and II AIFs (including VCFs) shall be close-ended and have a minimum tenure of 3 years.
Question 104
A "Wet Lease" typically refers to a lease arrangement (often in aviation) where the lessor provides:
View Explanation
In a Wet Lease, the lessor provides the aircraft, complete crew, maintenance, and insurance. A Dry Lease involves only the aircraft.
Question 105
National E-Governance Services Ltd (NeSL) serves as India's first:
View Explanation
NeSL is the first Information Utility registered with IBBI under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. It stores financial information (debts/defaults) to facilitate insolvency resolution.
Question 106
The "Scheme Information Document" (SID) of a Mutual Fund contains detailed information about:
View Explanation
SID provides all necessary details specific to a scheme that an investor needs to make an informed decision. General information is in the SAI (Statement of Additional Information).
Question 107
The "No Claim Bonus" (NCB) in motor insurance is a discount given on:
View Explanation
NCB is a reward for not making a claim in the preceding year(s). It applies only to the Own Damage component of the premium, not the mandatory Third-Party component.
Question 108
If an NPS subscriber exits before the age of 60 (Premature Exit), they must compulsorily annuitize at least what percentage of the accumulated corpus?
View Explanation
For premature exit (before superannuation/60), 80% of the corpus must be used to buy an annuity, and only 20% can be withdrawn as a lump sum.
Question 109
Banks distributing Mutual Fund products to their customers act in the capacity of:
View Explanation
Banks act as corporate agents or distributors registered with AMFI (Association of Mutual Funds in India) to sell MF schemes and earn commission.
Question 110
SEBI-mandated "Circuit Breakers" in the stock market are triggered based on the movement of:
View Explanation
Market-wide circuit breakers are triggered by 10%, 15%, or 20% movement in either BSE Sensex or Nifty 50, leading to a temporary halt in trading.
Question 111
The "Bank Rate" is currently aligned with which other policy rate?
View Explanation
Under the revised monetary policy framework, the Bank Rate is aligned with the MSF Rate (usually 25 bps above the Repo Rate). They move in tandem.
Question 112
In "Undisclosed Factoring", the arrangement is:
View Explanation
In Undisclosed Factoring, the buyer is not aware of the factoring arrangement. The seller collects the payment in the usual course and passes it to the factor.
Question 113
"Arbitrage" in forex markets refers to:
View Explanation
Arbitrage exploits price inefficiencies between markets for risk-free profit.
Question 114
The "Primary Period" in a lease usually refers to:
View Explanation
The Primary Period is the basic non-cancellable term of the lease aiming at cost recovery + profit. The Secondary Period follows, often with nominal rent.
Question 115
A Merchant Banker's registration with SEBI is valid for:
View Explanation
SEBI amended regulations to grant permanent registration to intermediaries like Merchant Bankers, subject to payment of fees and compliance.
Question 116
The "Startup India Seed Fund Scheme" (SISFS) provides financial assistance to startups for:
View Explanation
SISFS aims to provide capital at the earliest stage to help startups validate their ideas and reach a level where they can raise angel/VC funding.
Question 117
Under Basel norms, External Credit Assessments (Ratings) are used to determine:
View Explanation
The Standardized Approach for Credit Risk under Basel norms uses external ratings to assign risk weights (e.g., AAA = 20%, BBB = 50% or 100%) to bank exposures.
Question 118
What is the minimum "Public Float" required for a listed REIT/InvIT?
View Explanation
Listed REITs/InvITs must maintain a minimum public shareholding (float) of 25% to ensure liquidity and broad ownership.
Question 119
The "Initial Margin" in a Futures Contract is collected by the clearinghouse to:
View Explanation
Initial Margin acts as a security deposit (good faith deposit) to ensure that parties fulfill their obligations, covering the maximum probable loss in a single day.
Question 120
Treasury Bills are auctioned by RBI on behalf of the Government of India using which platform?
View Explanation
E-Kuber is the Core Banking Solution (CBS) of the RBI. The auction of Government Securities and T-Bills is conducted on the E-Kuber platform.