Question 1
Which of the following statements regarding the "Unorganized Financial Market" in India is TRUE? I. It includes Money Lenders and Indigenous Bankers. II. It is fully regulated by the RBI. III. Its interest rates are typically lower than the organized sector.
View Explanation
The Unorganized Financial Market comprises Money Lenders, Indigenous Bankers, and Nidhi companies. Unlike the organized sector (Banks, NBFCs), it is largely unregulated by the RBI (Statement II is false). Furthermore, interest rates in this sector are typically much higher, not lower, than the organized sector due to higher risk and lack of collateral (Statement III is false).
Question 2
To be classified as a "Scheduled Bank" under the RBI Act, 1934, a bank must satisfy which condition?
View Explanation
A Scheduled Bank is one included in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. To qualify, it must have a paid-up capital and reserves of not less than ?5 Lakhs and satisfy the RBI that its affairs are not conducted in a manner detrimental to the interests of its depositors.
Question 3
Which statement about the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) is INCORRECT?
View Explanation
NaBFID is a specialized DFI established to support long-term infrastructure projects. Unlike commercial banks, DFIs generally do not accept demand deposits (Savings/Current accounts) from the public; they raise funds through bonds, government grants, and multilateral institutions.
Question 4
Under the RBI's Scale Based Regulation (SBR) for NBFCs, the "Top Layer" typically consists of:
View Explanation
The SBR framework has four layers: Base, Middle, Upper, and Top. The Top Layer remains empty by default and is populated only if the RBI identifies specific NBFCs from the Upper Layer that pose extreme systemic risk and require tighter supervision.
Question 5
Which of the following money market instruments is issued at a discount to face value and redeemed at par? I. Treasury Bills. II. Commercial Papers. III. Certificate of Deposits.
View Explanation
Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Commercial Papers (CP), and Certificates of Deposit (CD) are all "Zero Coupon" instruments. They do not pay periodic interest; instead, they are issued at a discount to their face value, and the profit is the difference between the redemption value and the issue price.
Question 6
Initial Public Offering (IPO) and Follow-on Public Offering (FPO) are functions of the:
View Explanation
The Primary Market is where new securities are issued for the first time (New Issue Market). IPOs (first sale) and FPOs (subsequent sale by existing companies) allow companies to raise fresh capital directly from investors.
Question 7
What is the minimum paid-up voting equity capital required for setting up a Small Finance Bank (SFB)?
View Explanation
As per RBI guidelines (revised), the minimum paid-up voting equity capital for Small Finance Banks is ?200 crore. (For Universal Banks, it is ?500 crore, later revised to ?1000 crore for new licenses).
Question 8
The Narasimham Committee-I (1991) recommended the reduction of SLR and CRR to:
View Explanation
High SLR and CRR meant a large portion of bank funds were locked up in low-yielding government securities or idle cash (pre-emption of funds). Narasimham-I recommended reducing these ratios to release funds for productive commercial lending, thereby improving bank profitability and efficiency.
Question 9
As of recent amendments, the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit in the Indian Insurance sector under the automatic route is:
View Explanation
The Insurance Amendment Act, 2021 increased the FDI limit in the insurance sector from 49% to 74% under the automatic route, subject to Indian management control safeguards.
Question 10
An NBFC-Factor is a company whose financial assets in the factoring business constitute at least what percentage of its total assets?
View Explanation
To be registered as an NBFC-Factor, a company must have at least 50% of its total assets in the factoring business, and its income derived from factoring must not be less than 50% of its gross income.
Question 11
In the Call/Notice Money Market, funds are borrowed for a period of:
View Explanation
"Call Money" refers to lending/borrowing for 1 day (overnight). "Notice Money" refers to lending/borrowing for a period of 2 to 14 days. "Term Money" is for 15 days to 1 year.
Question 12
Which of the following activities is PROHIBITED for Payments Banks?
View Explanation
Payments Banks are designed to provide small savings accounts and payments/remittance services. They are strictly prohibited from undertaking lending activities or issuing credit cards to avoid credit risk.
Question 13
SIDBI acts as the principal financial institution for the promotion and development of:
View Explanation
SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) acts as the apex regulatory and financing body for the MSME sector in India.
Question 14
Which of the following instruments is regulated by SEBI?
View Explanation
SEBI regulates the securities market, which includes corporate bonds, shares, and mutual funds. G-Secs are primarily regulated by RBI. Currency is RBI's domain. Bank FDs are regulated by RBI.
Question 15
Which of the following entities is NOT regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) even though it is an NBFC?
View Explanation
Chit Fund companies are regulated by the State Governments under the Chit Funds Act, 1982. Housing Finance Companies are now regulated by RBI (transferred from NHB).
Question 16
In a Mutual Fund structure, who is responsible for managing the investment portfolio and making investment decisions?
View Explanation
The AMC is the operational arm appointed by the Trustees to manage the funds. Fund Managers within the AMC make the buying/selling decisions.
Question 17
Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are subject to "Dual Control" by which two entities?
View Explanation
UCBs operate under dual regulation: Banking functions are regulated by the RBI (Banking Regulation Act), while management/incorporation issues are regulated by the RCS of the State (or Central RCS for multi-state banks).
Question 18
The mega-merger of Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in 2019-20 reduced the number of PSBs to:
View Explanation
Following the amalgamation of 10 PSBs into 4 anchor banks, the total number of PSBs in India came down to 12, creating larger and stronger banks.
Question 19
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of:
View Explanation
CP is an unsecured Promissory Note issued by corporates, primary dealers, and FIs to raise short-term funds.
Question 20
Which DFI provides "Buyer’s Credit" to foreign governments and agencies to enable them to import goods from India?
View Explanation
Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) extends Lines of Credit (LOC) and Buyer's Credit to overseas entities to promote Indian exports.
Question 21
The primary function of NSDL (National Securities Depository Limited) and CDSL is to:
View Explanation
NSDL and CDSL are Depositories. They hold securities (shares, debentures) in electronic form to facilitate paperless trading and settlement.
Question 22
GIC Re (General Insurance Corporation of India) operates primarily as a:
View Explanation
GIC Re is the "National Reinsurer". It provides reinsurance support to direct general insurance companies in India and abroad, helping them spread risk.
Question 23
A "Core Investment Company" (CIC) is an NBFC that holds not less than what percentage of its net assets in the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in group companies?
View Explanation
A CIC is a specialized NBFC whose business is acquisition of shares and securities. It must hold at least 90% of its net assets in the form of investment in group companies, with at least 60% in equity shares.
Question 24
Which of the following banks is classified as a Domestic Systemically Important Bank (D-SIB) by RBI (as of 2023)?
View Explanation
RBI classifies SBI, HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank as D-SIBs. These are banks considered "Too Big To Fail" and are subject to higher capital conservation buffer requirements.
Question 25
What does "TREPS" stand for in the money market context?
View Explanation
TREPS enables tri-party repo borrowing and lending, facilitated by a central counterparty (CCIL). It allows participants to borrow against government securities collateral with a third party mediating the transaction.
Question 26
In a "Financial Lease", the risk and rewards of ownership are essentially transferred to the:
View Explanation
A Financial Lease is a long-term lease where the lessee bears the risks (maintenance, obsolescence) and enjoys the rewards of the asset, almost like ownership, though legal title remains with the lessor.
Question 27
Which pillar of the Basel II/III framework deals with "Supervisory Review Process"?
View Explanation
Basel Norms have 3 pillars: Pillar 1 (Minimum Capital Requirements), Pillar 2 (Supervisory Review Process - ICAAP), and Pillar 3 (Market Discipline - Disclosures).
Question 28
Which stage of Venture Capital financing is provided to companies that have a product prototype but haven't started commercial sales yet?
View Explanation
Seed capital is for the idea stage. Start-up financing supports product development and initial marketing. Expansion is for scaling up. Bridge is for pre-IPO.
Question 29
The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) is managed by:
View Explanation
RIDF was set up in NABARD. Banks that fail to meet their Priority Sector Lending targets contribute to this fund, which NABARD uses to finance rural infrastructure projects by state governments.
Question 30
What is the "Green Shoe Option" in an IPO?
View Explanation
A Green Shoe Option (Over-allotment Option) allows the issuer to authorize underwriters to sell additional shares (usually up to 15%) if demand is high, helping to stabilize the post-listing price.
Question 31
The "Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021" launched by RBI adopts which approach for grievance redressal?
View Explanation
The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021 integrates the three existing schemes (Banking Ombudsman, NBFC Ombudsman, and Digital Transactions Ombudsman) into a single centralized scheme, adopting the "One Nation One Ombudsman" approach to make the grievance redressal mechanism simpler and more responsive.
Question 32
Which of the following tenors is NOT a standard maturity period for Treasury Bills (T-Bills) issued by the Government of India?
View Explanation
Currently, the Government of India issues Treasury Bills in three standard maturities: 91-day, 182-day, and 364-day. There is no standard 270-day T-Bill.
Question 33
In the RBI's Scale Based Regulation for NBFCs, the "Middle Layer" (NBFC-ML) comprises all Deposit taking NBFCs and Non-Deposit taking NBFCs with asset size of:
View Explanation
The Middle Layer includes all Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFC-Ds) irrespective of asset size, and Non-Deposit taking NBFCs with asset size of ?1000 Crore and above.
Question 34
The "Net Asset Value" (NAV) of a Mutual Fund scheme represents:
View Explanation
NAV is the per-unit price of the mutual fund. It is calculated as (Total Market Value of Assets + Cash - Liabilities) / Total Number of Units Outstanding.
Question 35
Which entity owns and operates the "Unified Payments Interface" (UPI) system in India?
View Explanation
NPCI, an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, developed and operates the UPI platform.
Question 36
In a "Future Contract", the obligation to buy or sell the asset at a specified price on a specified date is:
View Explanation
Unlike "Options" where the buyer has the right but not the obligation, "Futures" impose a binding obligation on both parties to fulfill the contract on the maturity date.
Question 37
The National Housing Bank (NHB) is fully owned by:
View Explanation
NHB was originally a subsidiary of RBI. However, the Government of India acquired the entire stake of RBI in NHB in 2019, making it a 100% govt-owned entity.
Question 38
The "Real Effective Exchange Rate" (REER) is the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) adjusted for:
View Explanation
REER takes the NEER (weighted average of nominal exchange rates) and adjusts it for relative inflation rates. It is a better indicator of a country's trade competitiveness.
Question 39
Which of the following was the first Credit Rating Agency established in India?
View Explanation
Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited (CRISIL) was incorporated in 1987 and started operations in 1988, becoming India's first credit rating agency.
Question 40
The key difference between "Leasing" and "Hire Purchase" is that in Hire Purchase:
View Explanation
In Hire Purchase, the hirer has the option to purchase the asset at the end of the term. Ownership passes only when the final installment is paid. In Lease, ownership typically remains with the lessor.
Question 41
Forfaiting is a financing mechanism primarily used for:
View Explanation
Forfaiting involves the purchase of export receivables (like bills of exchange) by a forfaiter on a "without recourse" basis. It is typically used for medium to long-term export financing.
Question 42
An "Angel Investor" is typically:
View Explanation
Angel Investors invest their personal funds into early-stage companies (startups) that have high growth potential but high risk, often providing mentorship as well.
Question 43
Under the National Pension System (NPS), "Tier I Account" refers to:
View Explanation
Tier I is the primary pension account which is restrictive in nature regarding withdrawals (corpus is locked till retirement). Tier II is a voluntary savings facility with unrestricted withdrawals.
Question 44
The term "Bancassurance" implies:
View Explanation
Bancassurance is a partnership between a bank and an insurance company, where the bank uses its distribution channels to sell insurance products.
Question 45
Which of the following is a core function of a "Merchant Banker"?
View Explanation
Merchant Bankers mainly facilitate capital raising for companies by managing IPOs, underwriting shares, and providing consultancy on mergers and acquisitions.
Question 46
The equity capital of a Regional Rural Bank (RRB) is held by the Central Government, State Government, and Sponsor Bank in the ratio of:
View Explanation
The ownership structure of RRBs is fixed: Central Government (50%), Sponsor Bank (35%), and State Government (15%).
Question 47
Which of the following statements is true about "Certificate of Deposit" (CD)?
View Explanation
CD is a negotiable money market instrument issued by Scheduled Commercial Banks and select FIs. The minimum maturity for a CD issued by banks is 7 days, not 1 day. It is unsecured.
Question 48
In the context of IPO applications, what does "ASBA" stand for?
View Explanation
ASBA is a process where the IPO application money remains blocked in the investor's bank account and is debited only if shares are allotted.
Question 49
Infrastructure Debt Funds (IDF-NBFCs) are permitted to raise funds primarily through:
View Explanation
IDF-NBFCs are setup to facilitate long-term debt into infrastructure sectors. They raise resources through issue of bonds of minimum 5-year maturity.
Question 50
Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) primarily allow investors to invest in:
View Explanation
REITs pool money to own and operate income-generating real estate. The regulations require at least 80% of the value of the REIT assets to be invested in completed and rent-generating properties.
Question 51
The SARFAESI Act, 2002 empowers banks to enforce security interest without the intervention of the court. However, it does NOT apply to:
View Explanation
Section 31(i) of the SARFAESI Act explicitly excludes "any security interest created in agricultural land" from its purview to protect farmers.
Question 52
The TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform is specifically designed to facilitate financing for:
View Explanation
TReDS is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing / discounting of trade receivables of MSMEs through multiple financiers, helping them manage working capital.
Question 53
The "Regulatory Sandbox" framework introduced by RBI is aimed at:
View Explanation
A Regulatory Sandbox allows FinTech companies to test innovative products with real customers under regulatory supervision but with some relaxed norms for a limited period.
Question 54
In a "Unit Linked Insurance Plan" (ULIP), the investment risk is borne by:
View Explanation
ULIPs combine insurance and investment. The premiums are invested in market-linked funds (equity/debt), and the value of the corpus fluctuates with market performance. Thus, the investment risk lies with the policyholder.
Question 55
Local Area Banks (LABs) were set up to bridge the gap in credit availability in:
View Explanation
LABs were established as low-cost structures to mobilize rural savings and provide credit in a limited area of operation (typically 3 contiguous districts).
Question 56
The "National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited" (NARCL), often referred to as the "Bad Bank", was primarily set up to:
View Explanation
NARCL acquires stressed assets from commercial banks, cleaning up their balance sheets. The assets are then managed/resolved by the IDRCL (India Debt Resolution Company Ltd).
Question 57
Who among the following can operate as both lenders and borrowers in the Call Money Market?
View Explanation
Banks and Primary Dealers act as both borrowers and lenders in the Call/Notice money market. Co-operative banks are also permitted. Corporates are not permitted.
Question 58
India currently follows which settlement cycle for equity spot markets (as initiated in phases from 2023)?
View Explanation
India moved from T+2 to T+1 settlement cycle (Trade date + 1 day) for equities, making it one of the fastest settlement systems globally. SEBI is also testing optional T+0.
Question 59
An "Operating Lease" is usually characterized by:
View Explanation
An Operating Lease is like a rental agreement (e.g., renting a car for a week). It is short-term, doesn't cover the full asset cost, and the lessor handles maintenance. Financial Lease is the opposite.
Question 60
Which symbol typically represents the highest safety/creditworthiness rating by agencies like CRISIL or ICRA?
View Explanation
"AAA" ratings indicate the highest degree of safety regarding timely servicing of financial obligations and carry the lowest credit risk.
Question 61
In the context of Merchant Banking, "Hard Underwriting" refers to an agreement where:
View Explanation
Hard Underwriting involves a firm commitment by the underwriter to subscribe to a certain number of shares even before the public issue opens, providing certainty to the issuer.
Question 62
A "Put Option" gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to:
View Explanation
A Put Option allows the holder to sell the asset at the strike price. They will exercise this option if the market price falls below the strike price, profiting from the decline.
Question 63
In "Non-Recourse Factoring", if the debtor (customer) defaults on payment, the loss is borne by:
View Explanation
In non-recourse factoring, the Factor assumes the credit risk. If the debtor fails to pay due to insolvency, the Factor cannot claim the money back from the seller (client).
Question 64
Which of the following is the most preferred "Exit Route" for a Venture Capitalist to realize maximum returns?
View Explanation
An IPO allows the VC firm to sell its shares to the public at a market valuation, often yielding significantly higher returns compared to other exit strategies like buybacks or secondary sales.
Question 65
A "Forex Swap" transaction involves:
View Explanation
A typical forex swap consists of a spot transaction and a simultaneous forward transaction in the opposite direction. It is used to manage liquidity or hedge risk without open currency exposure.
Question 66
Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are required to extend what percentage of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the Priority Sector?
View Explanation
Unlike universal banks (target 40%), SFBs have a higher mandate to serve the underserved, hence their Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target is set at 75% of ANBC.
Question 67
Funds raised through "Green Bonds" must be utilized exclusively for:
View Explanation
Green Bonds are debt instruments specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and environmental projects like renewable energy, clean transportation, and water management.
Question 68
The "Total Expense Ratio" (TER) of a Mutual Fund scheme is:
View Explanation
TER covers investment management fees, registrar fees, trustee fees, audit fees, and marketing expenses. SEBI sets limits on the maximum TER that can be charged.
Question 69
What is the primary role of a "Third Party Administrator" (TPA) in the Health Insurance sector?
View Explanation
TPAs act as intermediaries between the insurance company and the policyholder/hospital. They handle the administrative aspects of claims processing, network hospital management, and cashless approvals.
Question 70
The "Atal Pension Yojana" (APY) provides a guaranteed minimum monthly pension to subscribers ranging from:
View Explanation
APY provides five slabs of guaranteed minimum pension: ?1000, ?2000, ?3000, ?4000, and ?5000 per month, depending on the contribution amount and age of entry.
Question 71
If a customer is not satisfied with the decision of the Banking Ombudsman, they can appeal to the:
View Explanation
Under the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, the Appellate Authority is the Executive Director in charge of the Consumer Education and Protection Department of RBI (Note: Earlier it was Deputy Governor, recently designated to ED level, but often referred to as Appellate Authority within RBI).
Question 72
Can a complaint against a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) be filed under the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?
View Explanation
The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme covers NBFCs (both deposit-taking and non-deposit taking) having customer interface and asset size of ?100 crore or more.
Question 73
Which of the following restrictions applies to Payment Banks regarding their investment of deposits?
View Explanation
To ensure safety and liquidity, Payment Banks are mandated to invest at least 75% of their demand deposit balances in Government Securities with maturity up to one year.
Question 74
The "Liquidity Coverage Ratio" (LCR) under Basel III norms ensures that banks have enough high-quality liquid assets to survive an acute stress scenario lasting for:
View Explanation
LCR promotes short-term resilience by ensuring banks have sufficient High-Quality Liquid Assets (HQLA) to survive a significant stress scenario lasting 30 calendar days.
Question 75
Under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), the standard timeline for the completion of the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is:
View Explanation
The IBC mandates a time-bound resolution process. The initial deadline is 180 days from the date of admission, extendable by 90 days. The Supreme Court has emphasized a mandatory outer limit of 330 days including litigation time.
Question 76
Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) acquire NPAs from banks. What is the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) requirement for an ARC to commence business (revised as per RBI 2022 guidelines)?
View Explanation
RBI raised the minimum Net Owned Fund requirement for ARCs from ?100 crore to ?300 crore to ensure they have sufficient financial strength to acquire distressed assets.
Question 77
Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), banks are required to maintain records of transactions for a period of how many years from the date of cessation of the transaction?
View Explanation
Reporting entities (banks) must maintain records of transactions and KYC information for a period of 5 years from the date of transaction or the end of the business relationship.
Question 78
Credit Information Companies (CICs) like CIBIL provide a credit score to individuals. What is the typical range of the CIBIL TransUnion Score?
View Explanation
The CIBIL score ranges from 300 to 900. A score closer to 900 indicates high creditworthiness and lower risk for the lender.
Question 79
Regarding Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs), which of the following statements about taxation is correct?
View Explanation
For SGBs, the interest (2.5% p.a.) is taxable. However, capital gains arising on redemption of the bond (held till maturity) are exempt from tax for individual investors. No TDS is deducted on interest.
Question 80
"Masala Bonds" are defined as:
View Explanation
Masala Bonds are debt instruments issued outside India but denominated in Indian Rupees rather than foreign currency. This shifts the currency risk from the issuer to the investor.
Question 81
Under SEBI AIF Regulations, "Category I AIFs" include funds that:
View Explanation
Category I AIFs are those which invest in sectors which the government or regulators consider as socially or economically desirable (Venture Capital Funds, SME Funds, Social Venture Funds, Infrastructure Funds).
Question 82
To ensure regular income for investors, SEBI regulations mandate that REITs must distribute not less than what percentage of their Net Distributable Cash Flows (NDCF) to unit holders?
View Explanation
REITs are required to distribute at least 90% of their Net Distributable Cash Flows to investors at least once every six months, ensuring they function as income-generating vehicles.
Question 83
Units located in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) enjoy a 100% tax holiday on corporate income for a block of:
View Explanation
To attract global financial institutions, the government provides a 100% income tax holiday for 10 consecutive years out of a block of 15 years for units in IFSC.
Question 84
Under Priority Sector Lending norms, what is the specific target for "Weaker Sections" for Domestic Commercial Banks?
View Explanation
The target for Advances to Weaker Sections (which includes small and marginal farmers, SC/ST, beneficiaries of govt schemes) has been increased to 12% of ANBC (Adjusted Net Bank Credit).
Question 85
The "Lead Bank Scheme" was introduced by RBI in 1969 to:
View Explanation
The Lead Bank Scheme assigns a specific bank in each district the responsibility of surveying credit needs, developing credit plans, and coordinating with other banks and government agencies to ensure banking development in that district.
Question 86
The "Service Area Approach" (SAA) launched in 1989 was aimed at:
View Explanation
Under SAA, each rural and semi-urban bank branch was assigned a specific service area comprising 15 to 25 villages for planned and orderly development of that area.
Question 87
In a "Corporate Bond Repo" transaction, the collateral used is:
View Explanation
Unlike standard Repo where G-Secs are used, Corporate Bond Repo allows borrowing funds by pledging Corporate Bonds. This aims to deepen the corporate bond market.
Question 88
An NBFC is classified as a "Systemically Important Non-Deposit taking NBFC" (NBFC-ND-SI) if its asset size is:
View Explanation
NBFC-ND-SI are those non-deposit taking NBFCs with an asset size of ?500 crore and above. They are subject to stricter prudential norms compared to smaller NBFCs.
Question 89
According to SEBI categorization, a "Large Cap Fund" must invest at least what percentage of its total assets in large-cap companies?
View Explanation
SEBI mandates that a Large Cap Fund must invest a minimum of 80% of its total assets in equity and equity-related instruments of large-cap companies (top 100 companies by market capitalization).
Question 90
In a lease agreement, the term "Residual Value" refers to:
View Explanation
Residual value is the expected fair market value of the leased asset at the conclusion of the lease period. In a financial lease, the lessee often guarantees this value.
Question 91
Section 24 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 deals with which mandatory requirement for banks?
View Explanation
Section 24 mandates that every banking company shall maintain in India, liquid assets (cash, gold, or unencumbered approved securities) valued at a price not exceeding the current market price, an amount not less than a prescribed percentage of its total Demand and Time Liabilities.
Question 92
Under the "Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021", what is the maximum compensation amount that the Ombudsman can award for loss suffered by the complainant?
View Explanation
The Ombudsman has the power to award compensation up to ?20 Lakh for any loss suffered by the complainant due to the act or omission of the Regulated Entity. Additionally, up to ?1 Lakh can be awarded for mental harassment.
Question 93
In the "Book Building" process of an IPO, the "Cut-off Price" refers to:
View Explanation
The Cut-off Price is finalized by the issuer in consultation with the Merchant Bankers based on the bids received. Investors bidding at the "Cut-off" agree to pay whatever final price is discovered.
Question 94
A "Commercial Bill" becomes a negotiable money market instrument only when it is:
View Explanation
While a trade bill acts as evidence of debt, it becomes a liquid money market instrument only when a commercial bank "Accepts" it, guaranteeing payment. It can then be discounted.
Question 95
The Principle of "Subrogation" in insurance implies that:
View Explanation
Subrogation allows the insurance company to claim legal rights against third parties that caused the loss, preventing the insured from collecting twice (once from insurer, once from the negligent party).
Question 96
What is the primary operational difference between an ETF (Exchange Traded Fund) and an Index Fund?
View Explanation
Both track an index (passive), but ETFs trade like stocks with real-time pricing, whereas Index Fund units are created/redeemed by the AMC at the day's closing NAV.
Question 97
In the NPS "Active Choice" investment option, what is the maximum cap on equity exposure (Scheme E) for subscribers up to the age of 50?
View Explanation
Under Active Choice, a subscriber can allocate up to 75% of their funds in Equity (Asset Class E). However, this limit tapers down as the subscriber's age increases beyond 50.
Question 98
The Narasimham Committee-II (1998) specifically recommended the introduction of which concept to strengthen the banking system?
View Explanation
The committee suggested "Narrow Banking" for banks with high NPAs, aiming to restrict their activities to risk-free investments (like G-Secs) to ensure depositors' safety.
Question 99
If the Forward Rate of a currency is higher than its Spot Rate, the currency is said to be trading at a:
View Explanation
When Forward Rate > Spot Rate, the currency is at a Premium. When Forward Rate < Spot Rate, it is at a Discount.
Question 100
Which portal operated by SIDBI acts as a platform for facilitating the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs?
View Explanation
Receivables Exchange of India Ltd (RXIL) is a joint venture promoted by SIDBI and NSE to operate the TReDS platform.
Question 101
What is a key functional difference between a Small Finance Bank (SFB) and a Payment Bank?
View Explanation
Both can accept deposits (Payment Banks have a limit). The critical difference is that SFBs can undertake lending activities, whereas Payment Banks are strictly prohibited from lending to minimize risk.
Question 102
Unlike Factoring which usually covers short-term receivables, Forfaiting usually deals with:
View Explanation
Forfaiting is a specialized form of export finance involving the purchase of medium to long-term export receivables (deferred payment obligations) on a non-recourse basis.
Question 103
Under Accounting Standard 19 (AS-19), a lease is classified as a "Finance Lease" if:
View Explanation
AS-19 criteria for Finance Lease include: transfer of ownership, option to purchase at bargain price, lease term covering major economic life, and PV of MLP essentially equaling fair value.
Question 104
Which statement correctly distinguishes an "Angel Investor" from a "Venture Capitalist"?
View Explanation
Angel investors are typically high-net-worth individuals investing their own money. Venture Capitalists are professional firms that invest money pooled from institutional investors (LPs).
Question 105
The Sub-Committee of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) is chaired by:
View Explanation
While the FSDC is chaired by the Finance Minister, its Sub-Committee, which handles operational coordination, is chaired by the RBI Governor.
Question 106
"Sovereign Credit Rating" assesses the creditworthiness of:
View Explanation
Sovereign ratings give investors insight into the level of risk associated with investing in the debt of a particular country (national government).
Question 107
In India's "Bad Bank" structure, the "India Debt Resolution Company Ltd." (IDRCL) acts as the:
View Explanation
NARCL acts as the ARC (buying bad loans), while IDRCL acts as the AMC (managing and selling the assets).
Question 108
Companies listed on the "SME Exchange" platform are required to migrate to the Main Board if their paid-up capital exceeds:
View Explanation
SME Platform listing is for companies with post-issue paid-up capital up to ?25 Crore. If it exceeds this limit, they must migrate to the Main Board.
Question 109
The interest rate in the Call Money Market is determined by:
View Explanation
While RBI sets policy rates (Repo), the Call Money Rate is a market-determined rate based on the demand for and supply of overnight funds among banks.
Question 110
The Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) replaced which system for pricing loans?
View Explanation
MCLR replaced the Base Rate system in April 2016 to ensure better transmission of RBI rate cuts to borrowers. (Note: EBLR has now replaced MCLR for new retail/MSME loans).
Question 111
Are Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) required to maintain Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)?
View Explanation
To strengthen liquidity risk management, RBI mandated LCR for larger NBFCs (Asset size = ?5000 Cr) and all deposit-taking NBFCs.
Question 112
Micro-Insurance products are designed to provide coverage to:
View Explanation
Micro-insurance aims to protect low-income people against specific perils in exchange for regular premium payments proportionate to the likelihood and cost of the risk involved.
Question 113
In the SEBI "Risk-o-meter" for Mutual Funds, which level represents the highest risk?
View Explanation
SEBI introduced "Very High" as the sixth category in the Risk-o-meter (replacing the earlier 5 categories) to alert investors about schemes with the highest risk profile.
Question 114
In the NPS architecture, the "Annuity Service Provider" (ASP) is responsible for:
View Explanation
ASPs are IRDAI regulated insurance companies empanelled by PFRDA to provide annuity services (pension payments) to subscribers upon their exit/retirement from NPS.
Question 115
A "Non-Deliverable Forward" (NDF) is a forex derivative contract traded:
View Explanation
NDF markets (like in Singapore or London for INR) allow trading in currencies that have restricted convertibility. Settlement is done in a convertible currency (usually USD), with no delivery of the underlying domestic currency.
Question 116
NaBFID can raise funds in the form of loans or otherwise from:
View Explanation
Being a DFI for infrastructure, NaBFID has diverse funding sources, including government grants, loans from RBI/banks, and borrowings from international multilateral institutions.
Question 117
The "Mission Indradhanush" for banking reforms launched in 2015 aimed to revamp:
View Explanation
Mission Indradhanush was a 7-pronged plan to resolve issues of PSBs, including Appointments, Banks Board Bureau, Capitalization, De-stressing, Empowerment, Framework of Accountability, and Governance Reforms.
Question 118
RBI incentivizes Foreign Banks to enter India through the "Wholly Owned Subsidiary" (WOS) mode because:
View Explanation
The WOS model ensures that the Indian operations are a separate legal entity with its own capital and board, protecting it if the parent bank abroad fails (Ring-fencing).
Question 119
Who are the three key participants in the TReDS platform?
View Explanation
TReDS brings together MSME sellers (to upload invoices), Buyers (to accept invoices), and Financiers (to bid and provide funding against invoices).
Question 120
A "Leveraged Lease" involves three parties: the Lessee, the Lessor, and the:
View Explanation
In a Leveraged Lease, the lessor borrows a large portion of the asset cost from a lender (non-recourse debt). The lessor provides only a small equity portion but enjoys tax benefits of ownership.