Question 1
Which of the following strategies involves "Strategic Asset Allocation"?
Strategic allocation is a passive strategy focusing on long-term goals. Tactical allocation involves active short-term deviations to exploit market opportunities.
Question 2
The "Sharpe Ratio" measures:
Sharpe Ratio = (Portfolio Return - Risk Free Rate) / Standard Deviation. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance.
Question 3
Gold Exchange Traded Funds (Gold ETFs) are:
Gold ETFs combine the flexibility of stock investment with the simplicity of gold investment. Each unit typically represents 1 gram (or less) of gold of 99.5% purity.
Question 4
If market interest rates rise, what happens to the price of existing fixed-rate bonds?
Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship. When market rates rise, new bonds offer higher coupons, making existing lower-coupon bonds less attractive, driving their price down.
Question 5
Which type of risk CANNOT be eliminated by diversification?
Systematic risk (e.g., inflation, war, recession) affects the entire market. Diversification removes unsystematic risk (specific to a company), but market risk remains.
Question 6
For a young investor (age 25) with a high-risk appetite and long-term goals, the recommended asset allocation would typically be weighted towards:
Young investors have a longer time horizon to ride out market volatility, making Equities the best asset class for wealth creation due to high long-term returns.
Question 7
Which ratio is crucial for evaluating a Real Estate Investment?
Rental Yield (Annual Rent / Property Value) measures the return generated by a property. It helps compare real estate with other income-generating assets.
Question 8
If a Mutual Fund scheme has a "Beta" of 1.5, it means:
Beta measures sensitivity to market movements. Beta = 1 means same volatility as market. Beta = 1.5 means if market moves 10%, the fund moves 15% (High Risk).
Question 9
Rupee Cost Averaging works best when the market is:
SIPs buy more units when prices fall. This reduces the average cost per unit. In a continuously rising market, lump sum investment might mathematically outperform SIP, but SIP manages volatility risk better.
Question 10
REITs (Real Estate Investment Trusts) allow investors to earn income primarily through:
REITs own rent-generating assets (offices, malls). They distribute the majority of this rental income to unit holders as dividends/interest.
Question 11
The practice of spreading investments across different assets to reduce risk is called:
"Don't put all your eggs in one basket." Diversification lowers unsystematic risk because different assets react differently to economic events.
Question 12
Which measure of bond risk estimates the percentage change in a bond's price for a 1% change in interest rates?
While Macaulay Duration measures the weighted average time to receive cash flows, Modified Duration measures the price sensitivity of the bond to interest rate changes.
Question 13
In portfolio management, "Standard Deviation" is a statistical measure of:
Standard Deviation measures the dispersion of returns from the mean. It captures Total Risk (both systematic and unsystematic). Beta captures only Systematic Risk.
Question 14
Which of the following is a major liquidity risk associated with direct Real Estate investment?
Real Estate is highly illiquid. Unlike stocks or gold, finding a buyer and completing the legal process takes months, making it unsuitable for emergency funding.
Question 15
Arbitrage Funds are treated for tax purposes as:
Since Arbitrage Funds invest more than 65% in equity (hedged using derivatives), they are classified as Equity Oriented Mutual Funds for taxation, enjoying lower capital gains tax rates.
Question 16
A "Systematic Withdrawal Plan" (SWP) is best suited for:
SWP allows an investor to withdraw a fixed amount regularly from their mutual fund investment, serving as a pension-like income stream.
Question 17
Credit Risk Funds primarily invest in:
Credit Risk Funds take on higher credit risk by investing in lower-rated papers in exchange for higher interest income (Accrual strategy).
Question 18
What is the additional benefit of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) apart from gold price appreciation?
SGBs pay interest semi-annually on the nominal value, which is a unique advantage over physical gold or gold ETFs which do not generate regular income.
Question 19
In Modern Portfolio Theory, the "Efficient Frontier" represents:
Portfolios on the Efficient Frontier are optimal. Any portfolio below this line is sub-optimal because it offers less return for the same risk.
Question 20
How does "Financial Leverage" affect an investment portfolio?
Using borrowed money (leverage) to invest increases exposure. If the asset rises, returns are magnified. If it falls, losses are equally magnified.
Question 21
In India, "P2P Lending" platforms are regulated by RBI as:
Peer-to-Peer lending platforms are classified as a special category of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC-P2P).
Question 22
An "Index Fund" is an example of:
Index funds simply mimic a market index (like Nifty 50) without active stock selection by a fund manager, resulting in lower costs.
Question 23
A Zero Coupon Bond is issued at:
Since it pays no periodic interest ("Zero Coupon"), the return comes from the difference between the discounted issue price and the face value received at maturity.
Question 24
Dividend distributed by a REIT is taxable in the hands of the unit holder if:
If the SPV pays tax at the normal rate, dividend is tax-free for the investor. If the SPV opts for the lower tax rate (Sec 115BAA), dividend becomes taxable for the investor.
Question 25
CAGR stands for:
CAGR is the geometric progression ratio that provides a constant rate of return over the time period. It smoothens out volatility.
Question 26
Technical Analysis in investment decision-making relies primarily on:
Unlike Fundamental Analysis which looks at financial health, Technical Analysis assumes that future price movements can be predicted by analyzing past market data (charts, patterns).
Question 27
Private Equity (PE) funds typically invest in:
PE involves investing directly in private companies to gain an ownership stake, often with the goal of restructuring and eventually selling for a profit (Exit).
Question 28
To achieve maximum diversification benefit, an investor should combine assets that have:
Diversification works best when assets do not move in the same direction. Negative correlation means when one asset falls, the other rises, offsetting losses.
Question 29
A lower "Expense Ratio" in a Mutual Fund usually leads to:
The Expense Ratio is deducted from the fund's assets. A lower ratio means less money is taken out for management fees, leaving more money invested to grow, thus increasing NAV/returns.
Question 30
Which index in India tracks the prices of residential properties across major cities?
Launched by the National Housing Bank (NHB), RESIDEX is India's first official housing price index aimed at tracking property price movements.
Question 31
In Technical Analysis, a "Golden Cross" occurs when:
The Golden Cross (e.g., 50-day MA crossing above 200-day MA) is a widely interpreted bullish breakout pattern indicating potential market rise.
Question 32
Which document contains the "Risk Factors" associated with a Mutual Fund scheme?
SID details the investment objective, asset allocation, investment strategy, and risk factors to help investors make informed decisions.
Question 33
MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) primarily facilitates trading in:
MCX is India's largest commodity derivatives exchange allowing trading in metals, energy, and agricultural commodities.
Question 34
"Performance Attribution Analysis" helps a portfolio manager to:
It breaks down performance to see if the manager added value by picking the right sectors (Allocation) or the right stocks within those sectors (Selection).
Question 35
Which category of stocks generally offers high growth potential but carries high volatility and risk?
Small and Mid-cap companies are in the growth phase. They can grow faster than large established companies but are more vulnerable to economic downturns.
Question 36
In investment terms, "Alpha" represents:
Positive Alpha indicates that the fund manager has outperformed the market (benchmark). Negative Alpha means underperformance.
Question 37
What is the tenor of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB), and when is premature redemption allowed?
SGBs have a tenure of 8 years. However, early redemption is allowed after the 5th year from the date of issue on interest payment dates.
Question 38
The "Treynor Ratio" measures the excess return of a portfolio per unit of:
While Sharpe Ratio uses Standard Deviation (Total Risk), Treynor Ratio uses Beta (Systematic Risk). It is appropriate for well-diversified portfolios where unsystematic risk has been eliminated.
Question 39
A bond trading at a price lower than its Face Value is said to be trading at a:
If a bond with a face value of ?1000 is selling for ?950, it is at a discount. This happens when current interest rates are higher than the bond's coupon rate.
Question 40
"Tactical Asset Allocation" involves:
It acts as a market timing strategy. For example, if the stock market is undervalued, a manager might temporarily increase equity exposure above the long-term target.
Question 41
NCDEX (National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange) is primarily known for trading in:
While MCX leads in metals and energy, NCDEX has a dominant market share in agricultural commodities like chana, soybean, castor seed, etc.
Question 42
An "Inverted Yield Curve" (short-term rates higher than long-term rates) is often considered a predictor of:
Normally, long-term rates are higher. When short-term rates exceed long-term ones, it suggests investors expect future rates to fall due to a slowing economy/recession.
Question 43
Art Funds are a type of:
Art funds pool capital to buy art pieces. SEBI halted many collective investment schemes (Art funds) in the past that were unauthorized, and now they fall under the AIF regulations.
Question 44
If a Mutual Fund has Total Assets of ?100 Cr, Liabilities of ?10 Cr, and 5 Crore units outstanding, the NAV per unit is:
NAV = (Assets - Liabilities) / Number of Units = (100 - 10) / 5 = 90 / 5 = ?18.
Question 45
Hedge Funds differ from Mutual Funds mainly because:
Hedge funds are less regulated pools of capital that seek absolute returns using risky strategies. They typically require a very high minimum investment.
Question 46
Capital Gains Tax on redemption of Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) is EXEMPT if:
Exemption from capital gains tax is available only if the bond is held till maturity. Early redemption or sale on exchange attracts Capital Gains Tax (with indexation benefits usually).
Question 47
SEBI has reduced the minimum application value for REITs and InvITs to allow retail participation. The current minimum application value is range-bound around:
To deepen the market, SEBI reduced the trading lot to 1 unit and application value to the range of ?10,000-15,000, making it accessible to small investors.
Question 48
A bond rated "AAA" indicates:
AAA is the highest rating assigned by credit rating agencies, signifying the borrower has an extremely strong capacity to meet financial commitments.
Question 49
Fundamental Analysis involves analyzing "EIC". What does EIC stand for?
It is a top-down approach: First analyze the Economy (Macro), then the specific Industry (Sector), and finally the Company (Financials) to determine fair value.
Question 50
In India, Hedge Funds are registered under SEBI AIF Regulations as:
Category III AIFs employ diverse or complex trading strategies (including leverage and derivatives) and include Hedge Funds.